I was reading the answer of this post but I don't understand why ''the maximum value of $\langle Ax,x\rangle$ on the unit sphere is attained only for an eigenvector for value $\lambda_1$''. I mean, the equality $$\langle Ax,x\rangle = \sum_{i=1}^n\alpha_i^2\lambda_i$$ implies that $\langle Ax,x\rangle\leq \lambda_1$ on the unit sphere, and if $v$ is a unit vector such that $Av=\lambda_1 v$ then $$\langle Av,v\rangle = \langle \lambda_1 v,v\rangle = \lambda_1\langle v,v\rangle =\lambda_1\|v\|^2 = \lambda_1.$$ However, can I show that the only vectors such that $\langle Ax,x\rangle = \lambda_1$ on the unit sphere are eigenvectors for the value $\lambda_1$?
Thanks in advance.