I was reading this question (Variance of sample variance?) and came across this answer (https://math.stackexchange.com/a/72978/791334) on how to calculate the Variance of the Sample Variance:
Suppose the samples are taking from a normal distribution. Then using the fact that $\frac{(n-1)S^2}{\sigma^2}$ is a chi squared random variable with $(n-1)$ degrees of freedom, we get $$\begin{align*} \text{Var}~\frac{(n-1)S^2}{\sigma^2} & = \text{Var}~\chi^{2}_{n-1} \\ \frac{(n-1)^2}{\sigma^4}\text{Var}~S^2 & = 2(n-1) \\ \text{Var}~S^2 & = \frac{2(n-1)\sigma^4}{(n-1)^2}\\ & = \frac{2\sigma^4}{(n-1)}, \end{align*}$$
where we have used that fact that $\text{Var}~\chi^{2}_{n-1}=2(n-1)$.
My Question: In the above formula, $\begin{align*} & \frac{2\sigma^4}{(n-1)}\end{align*}$ , the population $\sigma$ is written. However, in a real-world case, we will only have access to sample $s$.
Thus, I was wondering if it is possible to write the above formula while replacing $\sigma$ with $\hat{s}$ :
$$\begin{align*} \text{Var}~S^2 & = \frac{2(n-1)\hat{s}^4}{(n-1)^2}\\ & = \frac{2\hat{s}^4}{(n-1)}, \end{align*}$$
Where: $\hat{s}^2 = \frac{1}{n-1} \sum_{i=1}^n (x_i - \bar{x})^2$ .
Is this correct?
Thanks!