Suppose we have a (nonnegative if you like) sequence $x_n$ in $\mathbb{R}$ or a general Banach space. If for all $\alpha > 1$, $\sum_{n = 1}^\infty x_{\lceil \alpha^n\rceil} < \infty$, does this imply that $x_n \to 0$?
This question is inspired by the "sub-sub-sequence" characterization of convergence (e.g. this question and duplicates). (Application: I am trying to reduce a question of stochastic sequence convergence to stochastic series convergence.)
My thoughts: the most likely counterexample to this claim would be a sequence that doesn't converge to zero, but has its fluctuations super-exponentially far apart, e.g. $x_n = 1$ if $n = m!$ for some $m$, and $0$ otherwise. In any case, if $x_n > \epsilon$ infinitely often, I am not sure whether such $n$ certainly have an infinite intersection with the indices $\{\lceil \alpha^n\rceil\}$ for sufficiently small $\alpha$. (Maybe I am missing something obvious here.)
Edit 0: The prototype sequence I have in mind is $x_n = n^{-1}$.
Edit 1: The summability criterion implies $\lim \inf x_n = 0$. Intuitively it ought to imply more, as summability is stronger than convergence to zero. Perhaps we can find a creative way to combine series at varying $\alpha$?