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The integral with respect to a continuous increasing function $\alpha:[0,T]\rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ can be defined as follows. First define $\mu_\alpha([0,t]):= \alpha(t)-\alpha(0), t\in[0,T]$. Then $\mu_\alpha$ can be extended in a unique way to a measure on $\mathcal{B}([0,T])$. Next whenever a function $h$ is $\mu_\alpha$ integrable we refer to the integral of $h$ with respect to $\mu_\alpha$ as the Lebesgue-Stieltjes integral of $h$ with respect to $\alpha$ and write $$\int_{0}^{t}h(s)d\alpha(s)=\int_{[0,t]}h(s)\mu_\alpha(ds).$$ Now suppose there are two stochastic processes $A,B:[0,T]\rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ of finite variation satisfying $A(0)=B(0)=0$. Let \begin{equation} A\bullet B(t)=\int_{0}^{t}A(s)dB(s). \end{equation} In an voluntary exercise I am asked to prove the integration by parts formula for this stochastic integral given by \begin{equation} A(t)B(t)=A\bullet B(t) + B\bullet A(t), \end{equation} where as a hint we are to prove it for $A,B$ being increasing functions at first. I only ask for the solution or a hint on how to prove it for $A,B$ increasing, since we can write $A$ and $B$ as the difference of two increasing functions as they are of finite variation. All I see is that since $B$ for example is increasing, we can define $\mu_B([0,t]):=B(t)-B(0)=B(t)$, but I end up with \begin{equation} \int_{0}^{t}A(s)dB(s)=\int_{[0,t]}A(s)\mu_B(ds), \end{equation} where I do not know how to keep going. If they were both differentiable for example, I could use $dB(s)=B^{'}(s)ds$, plug this into the integral and use the integration by parts formula and then use $dA^{'}(s)ds=dA(s)$ and get exactly what I want to show, but for simply increasing and continuous functions, I am stuck and do not really know what to do. Any help is appreciated!

babemcnuggets
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  • Does this help? – Kurt G. Apr 22 '23 at 17:52
  • I guess that would work, then is there a good explanation on why make such a hastle to say that the integral of $h$ with respect to $\mu_\alpha$ is defined as a Lebesgue-Stieltjes integral and not immeadiately say that we define the stochastic integral (for a brownian motion for example) as a Lebesgue-Stieltjes integral? I am currently starting to learn about this topic, so maybe there is a reason for it in the future. – babemcnuggets Apr 22 '23 at 20:37
  • The reason is that the integrating functions we are dealing with here have finite variation and zero quadratic variation. As I wrote in the link this ensures that you can choose the point at which you evaluate the integrand freely inside every interval. If the integrand is BM this all breaks down. BM has infinite variation and finite quadratic variation. Formally it is also a Stieltjes integral but in the Ito case we have to choose the left end point of the interval. The midpoint defines the Stratonovich integral. I end here. This are enough hints for your studies in the future. Have fun! – Kurt G. Apr 23 '23 at 05:14
  • Just one more thing. I learned a lot about the Stratonovich integral here on MSE after thinking for 30 years that I knew it all. This post has some details. – Kurt G. Apr 23 '23 at 05:21

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