Is domain of $f(x) = x^{1/3}$ same as $f(x) = x^{2/6}$?
This is a exam problem in pre-calculus which asked us to write domain of $x^{2/6}$. I think the answer should be $[0, \infty)$ but the teacher said $\mathbb{R}$.
It's equivalent to how to define the domain of $x^{p/q}$ with $p, q \in \mathbb{N}$?
Method1(The teacher uses): We need to let $p, q$ coprime, then compute the domain. In this case, the domain should be same. That is $x \in \mathbb{R}$.
Method2(I use): $x^{p/q} \equiv \left(\sqrt[q]{x}\right)^p \equiv \sqrt[q]{x^p}$. Then domain of $f(x) = x^{1/3}$ is $\mathbb{R}$. For domain of $f(x) = x^{2/6}$, there is no universal definition for $x < 0$. $((-1)^2)^{1/6} = 1$ but $((-1)^{1/6})^2$ is not well-defined in $\mathbb{R}$ or multivalued in $\mathbb{C}$ $e^{i (\frac{1}{3}\pi + \frac{2n}{3}\pi)}$. Therefore, we need to exclude negative number, that is, domain is $[0, \infty)$. As shown in wiki and proofWiki, it doesn't require to make $p, q$ coprime first.
Which one is correct? That is what's the precedece of viewing the symbol $x^{2/6}$.