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I have a proof but im not sure that it is 100% rigorous. I started with the defnition of the length of a curve:
Integral from a to b over ||y´(t)|| dt is more or equal then
|| Integral from a to b y´(t)dt || = ||y(a)-y(b)|| and since y(t) is continuous, then both y(a) and y(b) must be finite numbers, meaning, the length of the curve is finite?

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No, it is not rigorous, because what you are showing is that the length of the curve is at least as large as a finite number. This is not sufficient to prove that the length is not infinite.