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Let $p, q \in M$, where $M$ is some smooth manifold. Then, according to Tu's book Introduction to Manifolds the tangent spaces $T_pM$ and $T_qM$ are disjoint. Of course we define the tangent bundle $TM$ as a disjoint union, but Tu claims that even if we had not done this the tangent spaces $T_pM$ and $T_qM$ in $TM$ would still be disjoint. Why is this?

Is it because if we view $T_pM$ as the set of all derivations mapping $C_p^\infty(M)$ (the algebra of germs of $C^\infty$ functions at $p$) into $\mathbb{R}$ then $T_pM$ and $T_qM$ have different domains, and so the functions are by definition different? I am hoping that there is a more geometrical reason for this.

CBBAM
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  • I think this reason is fair for this claim. We don't have an ambient space for all tangent spaces, so the "intersection" hardly makes sense. – xbh Nov 20 '22 at 06:56
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    Is Tu's definition in terms of germs? Or is it you that are proposing "if we view it this way"? Anyway, in some definitions, two tangent spaces at two distinct points may not be formally disjoint, but we don't care: the tangent bundle will in any case be defined as the disjoint union of these spaces – Didier Nov 20 '22 at 10:39
  • You don't have to use germs (in the smooth case at least); if you define tangent spaces in terms of pointwise derivations $C^\infty M\to\mathbb{R}$, you can show directly that they are disjoint. – Kajelad Nov 20 '22 at 10:44
  • @Kajelad How would you show that the zero derivations in $T_pM$ and $T_qM$ are formally distincts if they are defined as objects from $\mathcal{C}^{\infty}(M)$ to $\Bbb R$ satisfying Leibniz's rule? – Didier Nov 20 '22 at 14:34
  • @Didier Yes his definition is in terms of germs. – CBBAM Nov 20 '22 at 18:16

1 Answers1

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Yes, the elements of $T_pM$ and $T_qM$ are derivations with different domains, and so $T_pM$ and $T_qM$ are by definition disjoint. This is just a formal property, there is no geometrical reason.

In fact it depends on the construction of tangent spaces whether they are disjoint or not.

An alternative approach is to define $T_pM$ as the vector space of all derivations $D : C^\infty(M) \to \mathbb R$ at $p$. Here $C^\infty(M)$ is the algebra of all $C^\infty$ real-valued functions on $M$, and a derivation at $p$ is a linear map such that $D(f g) = (Df)g(p)+ f (p)Dg$. All such derivations have the same domain, and certainly the zero function belongs to all $T_pM$.

For submanifolds $M$ of $\mathbb R^n$ one can also construct a nice geometric variant of $T_pM$ as a certain linear subspace of $\mathbb R^n$. See for example Why is the tangent bundle defined using a disjoint union? or tangent vector of manifold or Equivalent definition of a tangent space? These "geometric" $T_pM$ are never disjoint. If $M$ is an open subset of an affine subspace of $\mathbb R^n$, then all $T_pM$ are even identical. For $M = S^{n-1} \subset \mathbb R^n$ all antipodal points have identical tangent spaces.

Tu writes

In the definition of the tangent bundle, the union $\bigcup_{p∈M} T_pM$ is (up to notation) the same as the disjoint union $\bigsqcup_{p∈M} T_pM$, since for distinct points $p$ and $q$ in $M$, the tangent spaces $T_pM$ and $T_qM$ are already disjoint.

Formally this is not correct. The disjoint union of an indexed family of sets $X_\alpha$ is defined as

$$\bigsqcup_{\alpha \in A} X_\alpha = \bigcup_{\alpha \in A} X_\alpha\times \{\alpha\} = \{(x, \alpha) \in \left(\bigcup_{\alpha \in A} X_\alpha \right) \times A \mid x \in X_\alpha \} .$$ If we know that the $X_\alpha$ are pairwise disjoint, we could write $\bigsqcup_{\alpha \in A} X_\alpha$ instead of $\bigcup_{\alpha \in A} X_\alpha$ to indicate this fact, but this would be just a notational convention and not a definition of the concept of disjoint union.

Another way out could be to understand the phrase "disjoint union" as a synonym for "categorical coproduct in the category of sets". If the $X_\alpha$ are pairwise disjoint, then $\bigcup_{\alpha \in A} X_\alpha$ can in fact be used as a coproduct of the $X_\alpha$, but the problem is that coproducts are not unique. The definition is based on a universal property which specifies its purpose allowing to find many individual constructions which result in isomorphic instances of coproducts. Thus we should not say the coproduct, but a coproduct.

Paul Frost
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  • Thank you very much! So it seems that in Tu's approach of defining the tangent spaces in terms of germs then each $T_pM$ must be disjoint (for only formal and not geometric reasons), but in other approaches this is not always the case. As a side note, this ambiguity in differential geometry/manifolds is interesting to me, I don't think I've seen this much variation in definitions before. – CBBAM Nov 20 '22 at 18:22