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For $a<b,\,\{a,\,b,\,k\}\in\mathbb{Z}$, Are there examples of integrals $\int_a^b f(x)dx = e^k$ with a positive $f(x)>0$ unrelated with the exponential function? (so no scalings of the form $\frac{\text{result}}{e^k}\cdot e^k$ are allowed)

To explain what I mean, the only similar examples I have found so far (that don't fulfill neither the possitivity of the function neither the integer integration limits conditions, and are the same integral with a just change of variable) are:

  • $$\frac{1}{\pi}\int\limits_{-\frac{\pi}{2}}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \cos\left(\tan(x)\right)\ dx = \frac{1}{\pi}\int\limits_{0}^{1} \cos\left(\tan\left(\frac{\pi x}{2}-\frac{\pi}{2}\right)\right)\ dx =\frac{1}{e}$$
  • $$\frac{1}{\pi}\int\limits_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{\cos(x)}{1+x^2}\ dx = \frac{1}{e}$$

And I am wondering if its possible to have a some function $F(x) = \int f(x)\ dx$ such as $F(b) - F(a) \propto e^k$ with integer numbers as its limits of integration.

Obviously you can always made a function $f^*(x) = \frac{f(x)}{e^k}$ to make it fit so this is not allowed, and also trigonometric functions are related with the exponential function due $\cos(x)=\frac{\exp(ix)+\exp(-ix)}{2}$, so try to understand what I am asking with unrelated as thinking as classical functions taught at school - don't know how to formally state it.

The objective is recreational: if I know this function $f(x)$, I could draw it in a square section of some unknown height $M>0$ and width $b-a$ and estimate $e$ as some operation using the landing of uniformly distributed random point in the rectangle and operating on the proportion below the area of $f(x)$

PS: I am aware of the video example $\int_1^e \frac{1}{x}\ dx=1$, is from where this doubt have rise.


Last findings

Through the properties $\lim_{x \to 0} (1+x)^{\frac{1}{x}} = e$ and $\lim_{x \to 1} (1+x)^{\frac{1}{x}}= 2$, I get to: $$\int\limits_0^1 \left(2-(1+x)^{\frac{1}{x}}\left(\frac{1}{x(1+x)}-\frac{\log(1+x)}{x^2}\right)\right) \,dx = e$$

where I believe the only problematic value is the logarithm since is not clear if I need to know beforehand the value of $e$ in order to define them and calculate its value. Since $\log(x) = \log(2)\log_2(x)$, and it is possible to find $\log(2)=\int_1^2 \frac{dx}{x}$, and the Binary Logarithm $\log_2(x)$ was tabulated previous the discovery of the constant $e$ as is stated in Wikipedia, I believe the formula could be a valid way to find $e$ if it wasn't been knowing yet (at least it is not in Wikipedia), or also finding $\log(x) = \int_1^x \frac{du}{u}$ I think don't require to know $e$ beforehand, but maybe I am wrong, if its that the case, please explain why. Maybe this makes someone to have an alternative idea of how to describe it with other elementary functions.

Also I tried to approximate $\log(1+x)\approx \log(2)x+(x-x^2)\frac{\log(2)(1-\log(2))(2\log(2)-1)}{3-8\log(2)+6 (\log(2))^2}$ on $x=[0,\,1]$ trying to find a logarithms-free version but it didn't work. Neither using small exponents for approximating $\log(1+x) = \lim\limits_{a \to 0} \displaystyle{\frac{\log(2)}{1-\frac{1}{2^a}}}\left( 1-\frac{1}{(1+x)^a}\right) $

By the way, the founded example is just $$\int_0^1 \frac{\partial}{\partial x}\left[2x-(1+x)^{\frac{1}{x}} \right]\,dx = e$$

example in wolfram alpha

It is possible to use also terms of the form $q(x)=\left(1+\tan\left(\frac{\pi x}{2}\right)\right)^{\cot\left(\frac{\pi x}{2}\right)}$ to find that $$\int_0^1 1-q'(x)\ dx=e$$ but since is almost the same function but even more complicated, and also has the same limitations due the logarithm appearing on the derivative, it doesn't deserves more analysis (at least without founding a way to avoid the logarithm).

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Later I have realized that when even the constant $e$ is not explicetly involved, it is still hidden since it still requires to find the limit $\lim_{x \to 0} (1+x)^{\frac{1}{x}} = e$ so I don't know if its valid (this problematic point when under the integral is just a point of zero meassure, so maybe the problem is avoided, but I don't really know).

Another related ones: $$\int_0^1 \frac{\partial}{\partial x}\left[2x+(2-x)^{\frac{1}{1-x}} \right]\,dx = e$$

$$\int_0^1 \frac{\partial}{\partial x}\left[2x+\frac{1}{2}\left((2-x)^{\frac{1}{1-x}}-(1+x)^{\frac{1}{x}}\right) \right]\,dx = e$$

In principle, it should be infinitely many strictly possitive functions which area below the curve in the interval $[0;\ 1]$ have a value of $e$, so its kind of frustrating I was not able to find any were the constant $e$ was not involved beforehand... Hope you could understand now what I am trying to find, a way to find the value of $e$ as it were unkown by integrating some function $f(x)$ made by classic functions you could draw with Straightedge and compass.

Do you figure out any? Or they are impossible to find without knowing the value of $e$ beforehand?

Joako
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  • At a guess, finite integrals, I'd bet against it. There are plenty of infinite sums/products, e.g., $\sum_0^{\infty} 1/n! = 1/e$, but if you could easily draw a rectangle to represent $e$, well, it wouldn't be transcendental would it? --- That said, there may well be something I'm not thinking of, probably on the interval $[0,1]$. – Eric Snyder Nov 01 '22 at 22:16
  • OTOH, we know $\ln a = \int_1^a dx/x$... So if we take $r = \ln 10 = \log_{10} 10/ \log_{10} e = 1/\log_{10} e$, so $e =10^{1/r}$. But I'm not sure if you're OK with that last part being necessary. – Eric Snyder Nov 01 '22 at 22:38
  • @EricSnyder Thanks for commenting. I have also doubts about if it is possible since my intuition says that any finite power series with integer coefficients will make only rational numbers so its difference cannot be a transcendental number, but also, power series aren't tight to integer coefficients, and also, there are functions that cannot be represented by power series that could make the trick, thinking here in some smooth bump function like example $f(x) = 2^{\frac{x^2}{x^2-1}}$, so maybe it is possible, it is why I asked this question. – Joako Nov 01 '22 at 22:47
  • I think the issue may lie in the fact that the derivative and the integral of $e^x$ are still $e^x$. So taking an integral of something and getting the exponential from it means... having the exponential as part of the integrand. – Eric Snyder Nov 02 '22 at 02:36
  • @EricSnyder The nearest thing I have found so far (still without fulfilling the integer integration limits), is: $$\int\limits_{\frac{2}{\sqrt{2-\log(2)}}}^{\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-\log(2)}}} \frac{2\log(2)\cdot x\cdot 2^{\frac{x^2}{x^2+1}}}{(x^2-1)^2},dx = e(e-1)$$ but us even worst than previous examples. Don't know if anyone has an idea of change of variable that could do the trick (if there is any). – Joako Nov 02 '22 at 04:09
  • This is not possible because your concept of "related to the exponential function" is not only ill-defined, there is no reasonable way to define it. Any function $f(x) = \dfrac {F(x)}{e^k}$ for some other function $F(x)$. So by your standard, every function is related to the exponential function. You can manipulate any integrable function in numerous ways to get another function with a desired integral. – Paul Sinclair Nov 02 '22 at 15:56
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    @PaulSinclair Thanks for commenting. I know is ill defined, as I explicitly told, but the idea is using a functions like the classical taught at school like trigonometric, polynomials, logarithms (which are obviously related), but in principle, using something that doesn't required explicitly to know beforehand the value of $\exp(1)$ because it is possible to use other tools to find it, mentioned functions could be graphed without knowing the exponential function ($\exp(1)$ was found way passed the 1000 B.C., when logarithms are known to be used in ancient Egypt, as example). – Joako Nov 02 '22 at 17:52
  • I am curious where you get the idea that ancient Egypt used anything that truly qualifies as logarithms. I am somewhat familiar with the nature of mathematics done there and in Mesopotamia. I find it doubtful that either even dealt with exponentiation beyond squaring and cubing, as their mathematics was grounded in real life applications. What you apparently are referring to are called the "elementary functions", consisting of anything definable by only addition, multiplication, exponentiation, and function composition and inversion. – Paul Sinclair Nov 02 '22 at 18:38
  • @PaulSinclair The use of logarithm in a primitive way through clay tables on ancient Egypt I read it once on the web, with google I found a source in a paper – Joako Nov 02 '22 at 20:53
  • Thank you, but all I can access is the first page of that article. In it, it mentions tables of circle chord lengths for given angles (effectively sine tables) being compiled by ancient Egyptians and Babylonians, not logarithms. The discussion then moves to Ptolemy about 1000 years later just before the end of the page. – Paul Sinclair Nov 02 '22 at 21:21
  • @EricSnyder Maybe I was believing something it was wrong. – Joako Nov 03 '22 at 03:13
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    @EricSnyder Do you believe it is possible to solve $$\int_0^1 f(x)\ dx = e$$ as it was a varational problem? – Joako Nov 03 '22 at 03:17
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    I’m voting to close this question because it is essentially a duplicate of your closed question here: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4568602/it-is-possible-to-prove-that-fx-ex-1-is-the-only-continuous-function-which . I think that you are asking (somehow) if there is a definition of $e$ using an integral. If that is in fact what you want to know, then just ask it that way. Perhaps knowing that $e$ is the number such that $\int_1^e (1/x)dx = 1$ will do. – Ethan Bolker Nov 06 '22 at 00:45
  • @EthanBolker the otherone was already closed and asked later than this one... I know what $e$ is, the question is about finding a cuadrature for saying it in some way, as if I plot it in a rectangle and drop random point use the fraction within the area to estimate $e$... I believe is a valid question, and at least I found an answer, no thank to all the picky comments on the other question. – Joako Nov 06 '22 at 00:58
  • @EthanBolker Somehow the other question got opened again due people upvotes on Open option. Just to clarify I wasn't lying on the last comment. – Joako Nov 06 '22 at 12:52
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    According to the top answer to https://math.stackexchange.com/q/159707/96384, for the most investigated rigorous concept that might catch what you envision here -- the question whether $e$ is a period -- the answer is unknown. – Torsten Schoeneberg Nov 07 '22 at 17:45

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