When we say $M$ is a model of ZFC, we tacitly assume $M$ to be a set model. But wait, $M$ can't be a set in the very ZFC by the axiom of foundation. Then where is $M$ a set?
To say/verify something is a set, we need a set theory. So, does this means that when we say $M$ is a model of some theory $\Gamma$, we are actually saying we have a set theory $\Gamma_{set}$, then we assume $\Gamma_{set}$ to be consistent, and then we can manage to construct within $\Gamma_{set}$ a set which satisfies $\Gamma$?
If that is the case, it looks kind of weird, because that seems to imply that when we are talking about models, consistency or the like, we are actually working inside a certain set theory. Besides, it also seems to allow the possibility that some theory is consistent in a working set theory (the set theory in which we are working) $\Gamma_1$ but inconsistent in another working set theory $\Gamma_2$.
I'm not a student majoring in math or something, and therefore has no professor or someone to turn to. Any help is welcomed! Thanks!