I would like to show that the real projective space $\mathbb{RP}^n$ is a manifold. This seems like a standard problem, and the explanation can be found in Lee's book on smooth manifolds as well as numerous proofs being available on this site. For the most part I understand the proof, but I am missing some intuition.
The idea, as I understand it, is to construct coordinate domains $U_i$ whose union cover our set, where $U_i = \pi(\tilde{U}_i)$, $\pi: \mathbb{R}^{n+1}\backslash\{0\} \rightarrow \mathbb{RP}^n$ is the quotient map, and each $\tilde{U_i} \subset \mathbb{R}^{n+1}$ is defined to be the set of all points such that $x_i \neq 0$.
The union of all such $U_i$ clearly cover $\mathbb{RP}^n$, so all that is left is to construct the coordinate maps $\varphi_i$ such that $\varphi_i(U_i) \subset \mathbb{R}^n$ and $\varphi_i$ is a homeomorphism. Lee defines this map as $$\varphi_i[x^1,\ldots, x^{n+1}] = \Big(\frac{x^1}{x^i}, \ldots, \frac{x^{i-1}}{x^i}, \frac{x^{i+1}}{x^i}, \ldots, \frac{x^{n+1}}{x^i}\Big)$$ and so the corresponding inverse is given by $$\varphi_i^{-1}(u_1,u_2,.....,u_n)=[u_1,u_2,.....,u_{i-1},1,u_{i+1},.....,u_n].$$
What is the motivation behind $\varphi_i$ (and its inverse), and why is the coordinate $x^i$ omitted in its image? From what I have gathered it has to do with some kind of slope of a hyperplane, but I do not see this or why we are scaling by $x^i$. Also, why is the inverse necessarily continuous? My guess is that it has to do with some property of quotient maps, but I am not sure.
As a side question, is the argument of $\varphi_i$ a single equivalence class and each $x^i$ is a component of $[x]$? If so, how come there are $n+1$ entries and not $n$?