I've got an integral $$\int_{0}^{\infty}\frac{\ln\left(x^{2}+1\right)}{x^{2}+1}dx$$ and when I used Feynman's technique of integration $$I(t) = \int_{0}^{\infty}\frac{\ln\left(x^{2}+t\right)}{x^{2}+1}dx$$ I got the result $$\pi\cdot\ln\left(\sqrt{t}+1\right)$$ but the problem is that after integrating $I(t)$, I must include constant $C$ so the final result should be $$I(t)=\pi\cdot\ln\left(\sqrt{t}+1\right) + C$$ and I have no idea how to calculate that $C=0$
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This is a duplicate, try to avoid answering duplicates. I’ll find a link shortly – FShrike Jul 28 '22 at 19:15
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2duplicate - one of many – FShrike Jul 28 '22 at 19:17
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You can also see this question for a generalisation. – KStarGamer Jul 28 '22 at 19:26
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$$I(0) = 2\int_{0}^{\infty}\frac{\ln\left(x\right)}{x^{2}+1}dx$$
Let $t=1/x$
$$I(0) = -2\int_{0}^{\infty}\frac{\ln\left(t\right)}{t^{2}+1}dt$$
Add them
$$I(0)=0~~\Longrightarrow ~~C=0$$

MathFail
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You are welcome. If it solves your question, please $\checkmark$ my answer :) @Bruh – MathFail Jul 28 '22 at 18:56
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