Problem/Conjecture :
Let $a\geq 1$ be a real number then it seems we have :
$$\int_{0}^{\infty}x^{-x}dx<\int_{0}^{\infty}\left(h^{-\frac{1}{2}h^{\int_{0}^{1}y^{y^{e^{ah}}}dy}}\cdot h^{-\frac{1}{2}h^{\int_{0}^{1}y^{-y^{e^{ah}}}dy}}\right)dh<2$$
If my conjecture is true it refine the problem Prove that $\int_0^\infty\frac1{x^x}\, dx<2$ . Where I gives some materials to show it .
Some remarks :
It seems for $a=1$ is the maximum and as $a\to \infty$ we get the lower bound :
Warning :
This problem is not so trivial because we doesn't have the inequality for $x>0$ :
$$x^{-\frac{1}{2}x^{\int_{0}^{1}y^{y^{e^{ax}}}dy}}\cdot x^{-\frac{1}{2}x^{\int_{0}^{1}y^{-y^{e^{ax}}}dy}}\ge x^{-x}$$
We don't have the inequality above but it seems we have for $x>0$
$$f\left(x\right)-x^{-x}+e^{-x}-e^{-1.01x}>0$$
Where :
$$f\left(x\right)=x^{-\frac{1}{2}x^{\int_{0}^{1}y^{y^{e^{x}}}dy}}x^{-\frac{1}{2}x^{\int_{0}^{1}y^{-y^{e^{x}}}dy}}$$
This problem seems very distinct . How to (dis)prove it ?