Let $(G, *)$ be a group. Let $a$ be an element in the group.
If $a$ is of order $n$, then $a^i = a^j$ if and only if $i \equiv j \pmod {n}$.
I don't understand conjugate classes in groups; which is usually used to prove such problems, as here (though it is a different question there, and not found this question here), though understand that both an element and it's inverse have the same order in a group.
But, the intuitive meaning is seemingly easy, i.e. if apply group operation (let $\circ$) $i$ times to an element $a$; then the map is same to $a^j$, iff $\overline{i}=\overline{j}$.
But, why need more complicated concepts like: conjugate class concept, or conjugation?
Request logic. Also if possible provide a solution using conjugation, with reference to a small example say : let $(G, *)$ be given by:$\langle \mathbb{Z}/ \mathbb{7Z},+\rangle.$