How to show that
$$\int_0^1\frac{\ln(1-x)}{1+x^2}\mathrm{d}x+\int_0^1\frac{\arctan x}{x(1+x)}\mathrm{d}x=0$$
without evaluating each integral individually?
I came up with this problem while working on some problem where I found ( by comparing some results) that
$$\sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac{(-1)^n H_{2n+1}}{2n+1}=\int_0^1\frac{\arctan x}{x(1+x)}\mathrm{d}x$$
and by using $$\int_0^1 x^{2n}\ln(1-x) \mathrm{d}x=-\frac{H_{2n+1}}{2n+1},$$ we have $$\sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac{(-1)^n H_{2n+1}}{2n+1}=-\int_0^1\frac{\ln(1-x)}{1+x^2}\mathrm{d}x.$$