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Motivated by the answer in this question, I wanted to perform computation in my own way in order to compute Fourier transform of $|x|^{-\alpha}$ (in a sense of tempered distributions) in $\mathbb{R}^n$ using Schwinger trick which is the following identity for $x \neq 0_{\mathbb{R}^n}$. However, I had problems understanding all of the steps.

$$ \frac{1}{|x|^{\alpha}} = \frac{1}{\Gamma(\alpha/2)}\int \limits_0^{\infty} t^{\alpha/2-1} e^{-t|x|^2} \mathrm{d}t $$

For clarity, I define distribution $1/|x|^{\alpha}$ in the following way for $0 < \alpha < n$ and $f \in S(\mathbb{R}^n)$, where $S(\mathbb{R}^n)$ is Schwartz space in $\mathbb{R}^n$. Here, $B_{\varepsilon}(0_{\mathbb{R}^n})$ is a ball centered at $0_{\mathbb{R}^n}$ with radius $\varepsilon > 0$.

$$ \frac{1}{|x|^{\alpha}} (f) := \lim_{\varepsilon \to 0^+} \int_{\mathbb{R}^n - B_{\varepsilon}(0_{\mathbb{R}^n})} \frac{f(x)}{|x|^{\alpha}} \mathrm{d}^nx$$

I understand that by definition of Fourier transform extended to distributions, I want to compute the following integral.

$$ \widehat{\frac{1}{|x|^{\alpha}}} (f) := \frac{1}{|x|^{\alpha}}(\widehat{f}) = \lim_{\varepsilon \to 0^+} \int \limits_{\mathbb{R}^n - B_{\varepsilon}(0_{\mathbb{R}^n})} \frac{\widehat{f}(k)}{|k|^{\alpha}} \mathrm{d}^nk$$

Moreover, I understand that as $\varepsilon > 0$, for each $k$ in the domain of integration we can use Schwinger's trick identity.

$$ \widehat{\frac{1}{|x|^{\alpha}}} (f) = \lim_{\varepsilon \to 0^+} \int \limits_{\mathbb{R}^n - B_{\varepsilon}(0_{\mathbb{R}^n})} \widehat{f}(k) \cdot \left( \frac{1}{\Gamma(\alpha/2)}\int \limits_0^{\infty} t^{\alpha/2-1} e^{-t|k|^2} \mathrm{d}t \right) \mathrm{d}^nk$$

However, now the trick is to apply Fubini's theorem in the following way. However, I am not able to justify it. I would like to argue the following.

$$\lim_{\varepsilon \to 0^+} \int \limits_{\mathbb{R}^n - B_{\varepsilon}(0_{\mathbb{R}^n})} \widehat{f}(k) \cdot \left( \frac{1}{\Gamma(\alpha/2)}\int \limits_0^{\infty} t^{\alpha/2-1} e^{-t|k|^2} \mathrm{d}t \right) \mathrm{d}^nk \stackrel{?}{=} \lim_{\varepsilon \to 0^+} \int \limits_0^{\infty} \frac{t^{\alpha/2-1}}{\Gamma(\alpha/2)} \cdot \left(\int \limits_{\mathbb{R}^n - B_{\varepsilon}(0_{\mathbb{R}^n})} \widehat{f}(k)e^{-t|k|^2} \mathrm{d}^nk \right) \mathrm{d}t $$

Question 1: How to justify previous equation? I think that I should argue that for all $\varepsilon > 0$ function $|t^{\alpha/2-1}\widehat{f}(k)e^{-t|k|^2}|$ is integrable on region where $(t, k) \in (0, \infty) \times (\mathbb{R}^n - B_{\varepsilon}(0_{\mathbb{R}^n})) \subset (0,\infty) \times \mathbb{R}^n$. However, I don't know how.

After that, I believe that in order to compute the integral over $k$, we want to use that for $f,g \in S(\mathbb{R}^n)$, $\langle \widehat{f}, \widehat{g} \rangle \propto \langle f, g \rangle$, where proportionality depends on definition of Fourier transform. However, I don't see how we can apply it here, as integration is over $\mathbb{R}^n - B_{\varepsilon}(0_{\mathbb{R}^n})$ instead of $\mathbb{R}^n$. So, the best I can think of is that we have to argue for the following equality.

$$ \lim_{\varepsilon \to 0^+} \int \limits_0^{\infty} \frac{t^{\alpha/2-1}}{\Gamma(\alpha/2)} \cdot \left(\int \limits_{\mathbb{R}^n - B_{\varepsilon}(0_{\mathbb{R}^n})} \widehat{f}(k)e^{-t|k|^2} \mathrm{d}^nk \right) \mathrm{d}t \stackrel{?}{=} \int \limits_0^{\infty} \frac{t^{\alpha/2-1}}{\Gamma(\alpha/2)} \cdot \left(\int \limits_{\mathbb{R}^n} \widehat{f}(k)e^{-t|k|^2} \mathrm{d}^nk \right) \mathrm{d}t $$

Question 2: Is this what we are supposed to do? If yes, how do we argue for that? I assume we want to use dominated convergence theorem but I am not sure of how to do it.

I understand how to perform $k$ integral now (assuming previous steps), where $A \in \mathbb{R}$ depends on definitions. However, it is unclear again to me how Fubini's theorem is justified.

$$\int \limits_0^{\infty} \frac{t^{\alpha/2-1}}{\Gamma(\alpha/2)} \cdot \left(\int \limits_{\mathbb{R}^n} \widehat{f}(k)e^{-t|k|^2} \mathrm{d}^nk \right) \mathrm{d}t =\int \limits_0^{\infty} \frac{t^{\alpha/2-1}}{\Gamma(\alpha/2)} \cdot \left(\int \limits_{\mathbb{R}^n} A f(k) e^{-|k|^2/4t} t^{-n/2}\mathrm{d}^nk \right) \mathrm{d}t $$

$$ \stackrel{?}{=} \int \limits_{\mathbb{R}^n} \frac{A}{\Gamma(\alpha/2)} f(k) \cdot \left( \int \limits_0^{\infty} t^{(\alpha-n)/2-1} e^{-|k|^2/4t} \mathrm{d}t \right) \mathrm{d}^nk$$

Question 3: How is Fubini's theorem justified in the last step?

I now understand that the goal is to consider change of variables $u(t) = |k|^2/4t$. But I think that such change of variables is defined only if $k \neq 0_{\mathbb{R}^n}$. So, I think I have to separate previous integral into regions $\mathbb{R}^n - B_{\varepsilon}(0_{\mathbb{R}^n})$ and $B_{\varepsilon}(0_{\mathbb{R}^n})$ as follows.

$$ \int \limits_{\mathbb{R}^n} \frac{A}{\Gamma(\alpha/2)} f(k) \cdot \left( \int \limits_0^{\infty} t^{(\alpha-n)/2-1} e^{-|k|^2/4t} \mathrm{d}t \right) \mathrm{d}^nk = \int \limits_{\mathbb{R}^n - B_{\varepsilon}(0_{\mathbb{R}^n})} \frac{A}{\Gamma(\alpha/2)} f(k) \cdot \left( \int \limits_0^{\infty} t^{(\alpha-n)/2-1} e^{-|k|^2/4t} \mathrm{d}t \right) \mathrm{d}^nk + \int \limits_{B_{\varepsilon}(0_{\mathbb{R}^n})} \frac{A}{\Gamma(\alpha/2)} f(k) \cdot \left( \int \limits_0^{\infty} t^{(\alpha-n)/2-1} e^{-|k|^2/4t} \mathrm{d}t \right) \mathrm{d}^nk$$

Question 4: Is this the correct strategy? If yes, I believe that to obtain the intended result I have to argue that the second term (integral over $B_{\varepsilon}(0_{\mathbb{R}^n})$) tends to $0$ as $\varepsilon \to 0^+$. How to show that?

  • The use of balls $B_{\epsilon}$ is not needed. Just integrate on $\mathbb{R}^n\backslash {0}$. For question 1 you need to put $|\cdot|$ on the integrands and use Tonelli's theorem. Also Fourier sends $S$ to $S$ so $\widehat{f}$ is a Schwartz function and you can bound it by constant times $\langle x\rangle^{-10000000}$ if needed. – Abdelmalek Abdesselam Mar 12 '22 at 22:38
  • Also, you are not adding details but rather subtracting details I gave in my previous answer. See in particular how I showed the integrability of $\int |x|^{-\alpha} \widehat{f}$. You need this as part of the Tonelli argument. When you use Plancherel, this is where you plug the hole at the origin and integrate over $\mathbb{R}^n$ which is a measure zero set modification. – Abdelmalek Abdesselam Mar 12 '22 at 22:43
  • @AbdelmalekAbdesselam thanks for comments! I edited "fill in the details of calculations" to "perform computation in my own way". I understand that $B_{\varepsilon}(0)$ might not be needed, but I think it is a valid way to define everything and is motivated by P.V. of integrals that is used in distribution theory. For question 1, I don't understand how to use your comment. I agree that $\hat{f}$ is a Schwartz function. I need to show that $|t^{\alpha/2-1} \hat{f}(k) e^{-t|k|^2}|$ is integrable and I agree that by change of variables $x = t|k|^2$, this reduced to integrability of (...) – Daniels Krimans Mar 21 '22 at 20:32
  • @AbdelmalekAbdesselam (...) $|x^{\alpha/2-1} \hat{f}(k) e^{-x} |k|^{-\alpha}|$. I understand that $|\hat{f}(k)/|k|^{\alpha}|$ is integrable by previous comments. However, I don't see how to use that to show integrability of the function I need. Also, even if you don't think my calculations are needed/useful, do you have any advice on questions 2,3,4? Would appreciate it – Daniels Krimans Mar 21 '22 at 20:33

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