Let $M(n, \mathbb{C})$ be the set of $n\times n$ matrices over $\mathbb{C}$. Let
$$ D:M(n, \mathbb{C}) \rightarrow \mathbb{C} $$
Suppose $D$ satisfies
- $D(I) = 1$
- $D(AB) = D(A)D(B)$
Is it possible to prove that $D = \text{det}$ where $\text{det}$ is the usual determinant?
If not then
(1) can I see a counter-example and
(2) can we add additional, coordinate-free, conditions to $D$ to make it so?
edit: comments quickly pointed out some counter-examples including $D(A) = \text{det}(A^k)$ for positive integer $k$.
What if we add the condition
(3) $D(cA) = c^nD(A)$ for $c \in \mathbb{C}$