This can be thought of as a continuation of the post Hermis14, which deals with sets of specific structures. Now, the last question that remains to me is when the finiteness of a set really matters.
For nonempty sets $A$ and $B$, consider a surjection $ f: A \to B $.
Consider the sentences:
$S1$: $B$ is finite.
$S2$: $B$ is infinite.
$S3$: There is a function $g: B \to A $ such that $ \forall y \in B: f(g(y)) = y $.
I think both claims $ S1 \to S3$ and $ S2 \to S3 $ require the axiom of choice because though we know that the fiber $f^{-1}[y]$ for each $y \in B$ is nonempty, a specific choice rule cannot be considered since $f$ is unknown.
But Wikipedia says that
In many cases, such a selection can be made without invoking the axiom of choice; this is, in particular, the case if the number of sets is finite, or if a selection rule is available
Does it mean that $S1 \to S3$ does not invoke the axiom of choice? Would you help me figure out what I am missing?