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Let $f$ be $f: \mathbb R^2 \to \mathbb R$.

What I recall/understand:

  1. That $f$ is differentiable at a point $(a,b)$ is defined as this weird thing from James Stewart, Calculus (similar for $v$)

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  1. Sufficient condition: That $f: \mathbb R^2 \to \mathbb R$ is differentiable a point $(a,b)$ has a sufficient condition from this theorem also from James Stewart, Calculus

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which I read as

If $f_x$ and $f_y$ exist in an open disc containing $(a,b)$ and are continuous at $(a,b)$, then $f$ is differentiable at $(a,b)$.


Questions:

  1. Does $f$ differentiable at $(a,b)$ imply $f_x$ and $f_y$ exist at $(a,b)$?

  2. For $f: \mathbb R^2 \to \mathbb R$ differentiable at $(a,b)$, what exactly its 'derivative' anyway?

  • Update: It's Jacobian. The thing is wiki doesn't say the jacobian of $f$ is the derivative of $f$. Anyway, I'll tag this question with jacobian.

    • What I understand is for just $g: \mathbb R \to \mathbb R$, we have $g$ 'differentiable' at $a$ if $\lim_{x \to a} \frac{g(x)-g(a)}{x-a}$ exists and then define the 'derivative' $g'(x)$ as the limit. Similar for even complex derivative, for example.

So what about for $f$? What is the 'derivative' of $f$? You might argue that $f$ doesn't really have 'a'/'the' derivative but rather has infinite derivatives, eg using gradient based on $f_x$ and $f_y$.

But even for just $f_x$ and $f_y$ these derivatives exist based on the existence of a limit. Like you could define something like 'differentiable in the $x$-direction at $(a,b)$' if $\lim_{x \to a} \frac{f(x,b)-f(a,b)}{x-a}$ exists and then you define 'the derivative in the $x$-direction at $(a,b)$' as the limit.

So, what, differentiable for $f: \mathbb R^2 \to \mathbb R$ doesn't really have like 'a derivative' ?

BCLC
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  • is true but not its reciprocal see -> https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2569710/a-function-whose-partial-derivatives-exist-at-a-point-but-is-not-continuous
  • – zwim Oct 27 '21 at 19:30
  • @zwim thanks. as for why the reciprocal (converse?) is false...well that's the whole point of sufficient condition right? i don't know any explicit counter-example, but i just find it weird if a book will call it sufficient condition instead of equivalent condition, if they're actually equivalent...? – BCLC Oct 27 '21 at 19:57