According to my book, the principal value of $\tan^{-1}(\frac{-y}{-x})$ is $\tan^{-1}(\frac{y}{x})-\pi$. However, isn't $\tan^{-1}(\frac{-y}{-x})=\tan^{-1}(\frac{y}{x})$ and isn't $\tan^{-1}(\frac{y}{x})<\tan^{-1}(\frac{y}{x})-\pi$. So, isn't $\tan^{-1}(\frac{y}{x})$ the principal value of $\tan^{-1}(\frac{-y}{-x})$?
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2This is terrible notation. They should have used the "atan2" function instead. – Hans Lundmark Sep 21 '21 at 07:32
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Funny.... I was sure I deleted that comment! I was dead wrong after all! – fleablood Sep 21 '21 at 19:04
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Because I was WRONG. (I didn't delete your comment... I don't think I can do that.... but I deleted my comment because I was WRONG) – fleablood Sep 22 '21 at 05:09
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@fleablood could you please clarify your position? – tryingtobeastoic Sep 23 '21 at 13:26
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Why?! Why should I clarify ANYTHING? I posted a comment. I was WRONG. So I deleted the comment. What more can POSSIBLY need to be clarified? – fleablood Sep 23 '21 at 15:39
4 Answers
The difference between $\tan^{-1}(\frac{y}{x}) $ and
$\tan^{-1}(\frac{-y}{-x})$ is that$$ \tan^{-1}(\frac{y}{x}) $$ is located in the first quadrant while
$$ \tan^{-1}(\frac{-y}{-x}) $$ is located in the third quadrant - in the sense that $(x,y),(-x,-y)$ does. Although they both give similar values when plugged in a calculator, the two differs by their location so you must compensate by $\pi$ accordingly to get the angle required starting from $0$

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If $x,y>0$ then $$\tan^{-1} \frac{y}{x}= \tan^{-1}\frac{-y}{-x}= \pi/4$$ But primcipal value of $\arg (x+iy)=\pi/4$ but it is $-3\pi/4$ for $\arg(-x-iy).$

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You are correct, and your book is rubbish.
- It simultaneously and contradictorily claims:
- the principal value of $\tan^{-1}\frac yx$ is $\tan^{-1}\frac yx$
- the principal value of $\tan^{-1}\frac {-y}{-x}$ is $\tan^{-1}\frac yx-\pi.$
- Its second and fourth claims similarly contradict each other.
- In fact, the four claims are collectively a mess: they mix up clockwise and anticlockwise measurements, the concept of principal angle, and are notationally inconsistent.

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I get what they are trying to say, but their way of explaining it is pretty bad. They should've used the atan2 function as @HansLundmark mentions. – tryingtobeastoic Sep 21 '21 at 08:13
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@tryingtobeastoic 1. That’s really not the only problem: they claims r still patently wrong even if u write arctan instead of $tan^{-1}$ and treat this as the principal. 2. There is no single interpretation under which the four claims r consistent. – ryang Sep 21 '21 at 08:39
It is not just algebraic equivalence; the sign of numerator and denominator decides location of the tip of radius vector.
There are four possibilities to determine quadrant placement:
$$\dfrac{x}{y}=\dfrac{+}{+},\quad \dfrac{-}{+},\quad \dfrac{-}{-},\quad \dfrac{+}{-};\quad $$
For a point $(x,y)$ in first quadrant, its principal argument angle is in the first quadrant.
For a point $(-x,-y)$ in third quadrant its principal argument angle is in the third quadrant.
Co-terminal angle for any arctan function can be obtained by addition/subtraction of $k \pi$, meaning the point can always be taken to the vertically opposite quadrant.

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