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I recently learned how to prove that showing $(x_n)$ is converges to $L$, it is sufficient to show that it's subsequence of even and odd terms converge to $L$

But I wonder, can we do better and generalise a bit? I'm going to write down some of my thoughts, I might lack some rigour so please excuse me.

Let $(x_n)_{n \in \mathbb{N}}$ be a real sequence. Let $T_1, T_2,\ldots, T_k \subseteq \mathbb{N}$ be infinite subsets of $\mathbb{N}$ such that $\bigcup_{i=1}^k T_i = \mathbb{N}$ then, can I claim something like:

If $(a_n)_{n \in T_i}$ converges to $L$ for each $i$ then $\lim\limits_{n \to ∞} a_n =L$


My intuition tells me this should be true although I'm not sure how I would begin to prove such a thing. If it's not true, then... well why?


Proof 1:

If $(a_n)_{n \in T_i} \to L, \forall \, i \, (1≤i≤k)$ then $$\forall \, \epsilon >0, \exists \, N_i \in \mathbb{N}, N_i \in T_i : \forall \, n ≥N_i, n \in T_i \Rightarrow |a_n-L| < \epsilon $$ Let $N = \max\limits_{1≤i≤k} N_i$ then $$\forall \, n ≥N, n \in T_i \Rightarrow |a_n-L| < \epsilon, \forall \, i \, (1≤i≤k)$$ i.e. $ \forall \ n \, (n \in T_1$ or $n \in T_2$ or $\ldots$ or $n \in T_k, n ≥N) \Rightarrow |a_n-L| < \epsilon$ and thus, $$\forall \, n ≥N, n \in \bigcup_{i=1}^n T_i \Rightarrow |a_n-L| < \epsilon $$ or $$\forall \, n ≥N, n \in \mathbb{N} \Rightarrow |a_n-L| < \epsilon$$ Hence, the proof is complete. Is this correct?

Proof 2: This proof will be rewriting proof 1 but with alternative notation which is the subsequence notation.

Let $T_i = \{t_n^i \in \mathbb{N}: n \in \mathbb{N} \}\subseteq \mathbb{N}$, note that $t_n^i$ denotes the $n$th position in the sequence of $T_i$ i.e. $(a_n)_{n \in T_i} = (a_{t_{n}^i} )_{n \in \mathbb{N}}$ as $(t_n^i)$ is a strictly increasing sequence in $T_i$.

Such a sequence $(t_n^i)$ exists in $T_i$ because $T_i$ is an infinite subset of $\mathbb{N}$ with the usual ordering of $\mathbb{N}$ so I can construct a strictly monotone sequence in $T_i$ like: $t_1^i <t_2^i <t_3^i< \ldots<t_n^i<\ldots $ . I'm not sure how to write this part more rigourously.

The rest of the proof would be similar to 1 by simply choosing a maximum $N_i$.


William
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    It's true. You should be able to modify the proof you learned for the case $n=2$ in this more general setting. Try; ask here if you get stuck. – Ethan Bolker Jul 08 '21 at 13:34
  • @EthanBolker I did. At least I tried. Mind taking a look? – William Jul 08 '21 at 17:39
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    The use of symbols is excessive, but the proof is correct. I think what you want is to assume that for each $i \in {1, \dots, k}$, $(T_{i, n}){n = 1}^{\infty}$ is a strictly increasing sequence of natural numbers such that $(a{T_{i, n}}){n = 1}^{\infty}$ converges to $L$. Writing $(a_n){n \in T_i}$ is strange because it isn't really specifying a sequence, which is a function from $\mathbb{N}$ to $\mathbb{R}$. Though it is true that the convergence of a sequence does not depend on the ordering of it's terms. – Mason Jul 08 '21 at 21:31
  • @Mason Very important observation, one that I honestly overlooked. $(a_n)_{n \in T_i}$ isn't so much a sequence in the usual sense as it is not a mapping from $\mathbb{N} \to \mathbb{R}$ but rather from $T_i \to \mathbb{R}$. I suppose, my justification would be that as $T_i$ is non empty subset of $\mathbb{N}$, it has a least element, say $t_1^i$ and as $T_i$ inherits ordering from $\mathbb{N}$ so every natural number in $T_i$ can be ordered like $t_1^i<t_2^i < \ldots$ through a bijection from $\mathbb{N} \to T_i$. (Such a bijection exists as T_i is countably infinite). What do you think? – William Jul 09 '21 at 10:27
  • @William Yes, infinite subsets of the natural numbers can be identified with strictly increasing sequences of natural numbers. I think the hypotheses should be each $(T_{i, n}){n = 1}^{\infty}$ is a strictly increasing sequence of natural numbers and ${ T{i, n} \mid i \in {1, \dots, k}, n \in \mathbb{N}} = \mathbb{N}$. Dealing with sets doesn't make sense here. – Mason Jul 09 '21 at 18:12

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The proof in your question is probably correct. I find it almost undreadable, and so have not checked it. Here is how I would write it, using words as much as possible.

Given an $\epsilon > 0$ I want to find an integer $N$ beyond which all the sequence elements $a_n$ are within $\epsilon$ of $L$. (That's just using the definition of the limit.)

Well for each of the finitely many subsequences indexed by a $T_i$ I can find an $N_i$ that does the job for that subsequence. Now let $N$ be the maximum of the $N_i$. Then for every $n>N$ I know $a_n$ is in one of the $i$ subsequences since the union of the $T_i$ is all of $\mathbb{N}$. Then $a_n$ is within $\epsilon$ of $L$.

I suspect that is pretty much what you were thinking when you wrote your proof. There's no point in rewriting clear thought in English as strings of symbols.

Note where the finiteness is used. That suggests that the claim might fail if you don't assume that there are just finitely many subsequences. So you should either look for a counterexample or try to write the proof without the assumption.

Edit in response to comments.

Is the assertion true if you say

Let $T_1,T_2, \ldots ⊆ \mathbb{N}$ be infinitely many subsets of $\mathbb{N}$ whose union is $\mathbb{N}$ then ...

Excessive (that is, unnecessary) use of symbols rather than words makes what you write hard to read. It's definitely unprofessional. See Is it bad form to write mysterious proofs without explaining what one intends to do?

Ethan Bolker
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  • Note where the finiteness is used. I don't get this part, are you talking about the number of sets $T_i$ and the fact that these finite number of sets must cover $\mathbb{N}$ or the claim fails or something else? – William Jul 09 '21 at 07:17
  • To be honest I'm new to analysis, so I'm just experimenting my ability to write symbols and join them with correct logical connectives. Is excessive use of symbols not an ideal way to write math? Or is just not a professional way to do things? I'm usually hesitant in writing down my proofs in English because oh my god, it maybe sometimes open to multiple interpretation. And there is always that one person who intentionally misunderstands what you write down in English. Which is why I'm a big believer of using symbols. – William Jul 09 '21 at 07:19
  • "Undreadable"!!! :) But, yes, I'd echo the recommendation to say things in simple language. – paul garrett Jul 09 '21 at 19:03
  • @paulgarett is it that bad? Haha. I was particularly proud of myself for coming up with it so quickly lol oh well. – William Jul 10 '21 at 12:43