I understand any permutation $(a_1 \text{ } a_2 ... a_k)$ in $S_n$ where $k \leq n$ can be written as a product of $(a_1 \text{ } a_k)(a_1a_{k-1})...(a_2 \text{ } a_1)$. Similarly, $(a_1a_2...a_k)$ can be written as $(1 \text{ } a_1)(1 \text{ } a_k)...(1 \text{ } a_2)(1 \text{ } a_1)$ (if the permutation has $1$ in it, it can be rearranged so $1$ is the first integer appearing on the left and then the first and last transpositions can be removed) which shows any permutation can be written as the products of $(1 \text{ } 2), (1 \text{ } 3),...,(1 \text{ } n)$.
Is it possible to write a permutation as a product of $(1 \text{ } 2),(2 \text{ } 3),...,(n-1 \text{ } n)$? If the permutation consists of consecutive numbers in increasing order then $(a_1 \text{ } a_2)...(a_{k-1} \text{ } a_k)$ works fine. But I cannot generalize it for any sequence of integers. Is this actually possible?
Edit
It turns out it is possible. I am hoping to generalize this claim so for any permutation, so I can write it as a product of $(1 2), (2 3), ...,(n-1 \text{ } n)$, the way I have shown it works for $(1 2), (1 3),...,(1 n)$. For instance if $\sigma =(352)$ then $\sigma=(1 3)(1 2)(1 5)(13)$. How can the same cycle be written as a product of $(1 2),(2 3),...(n-1 \text{ } n)?$