Let $(a_k)$ be a sequence decreasing to $0$, for which $$ b_k:=\left(\sum_{l=1}^ka_l\right)-ka_{k+1}=\sum_{l=1}^k(a_l-a_{k+1})$$ is bounded. Does $\sum_{k\geq 0}a_k$ necessarily converge?
Some immediate observations:
- $(b_k)$ is increasing, hence converges.
- By considering $b_k-b_{k-1}$, one obtains that $k(a_k-a_{k+1})$ tends towards $0$.
- For $\sum a_k$ to converge, it suffices to prove that $ka_k$ converges.