1

The title pretty much sums up the problem. I need to examine for which values of $p\in\mathbb{R}$ the following improper integral converges: $$I := \int_1^\infty\frac{1}{\left(x^{p^3} + x^{4p}\right)\ln^2(1+\sqrt[4]{x})}dx$$

What I initially thought about was the Abel-Dirichlet test, which only gives us a range of $p$ for which the integral converges, but I'm not sure how to find out whether that are all values and I even suspect that they're not. So, if we define $$f(x) := \frac{1}{\ln^2(1+x^{\frac{1}{4}})}$$ then we have that $f(x) > 0$ and is monotonically decreasing and $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to\infty}f(x) = 0$, so if we make $\displaystyle\int_1^{\infty}\frac{1}{x^{p^3}+x^{4p}}dx$ convergent, then by the Abel-Dirichlet test $I$ will also be convergent. And this happens when $max\{p^3, 4p\} > 1$, i.e. when $p > \frac{1}{4}$.

But as said, this is an artificial constraint in order to employ the test I could think of. I also figured I could somehow bound $I$ between some integrals that converge for the same values of $p$, but I could only find the upper bound in the following way by examining boundedness of $f(x)$:

Since we mentioned it was monotonically decreasing and tends to $0^+$, from some point on it will be strictly less than 1. This point is namely $a = (e-1)^4 > 1$, so we can split $I$ as sum of two integrals (one from 1 to a and another from a to $\infty$). Since the first one is a definite integral, it is a number and doesn't change convergence, so $$I \sim \int_a^\infty\frac{1}{\left(x^{p^3} + x^{4p}\right)\ln^2(1+\sqrt[4]{x})}dx < \int_a^\infty\frac{1}{x^{p^3} + x^{4p}}dx$$ and we obtain the same results as with the test before, namely that when $p > \frac{1}{4}$ the upper bound integral converges and so does $I$. But what could be a smart lower bound? Is that even the approriate approach? Any ideas are greatly welcomed! Many thanks in advance!

D. Petrov
  • 851
  • 4
  • 12

1 Answers1

1

hint

near infinity, $$1+x^{\frac 14}\sim x^{\frac 14}$$ and

$$\ln(1+x^{\frac 14})\sim \frac 14 \ln(x)$$

If $ p^3>4p$, then $$x^{p^3}+x^{4p}\sim x^{p^3}$$

If $ p^3=4p$, then

$$x^{p^3}+x^{4p}\sim 2x^{4p}$$

If $ p^3<4p$, then $$x^{p^3}+x^{4p}\sim x^{4p}$$

in the end, you will get what we call the Bertrand's integral.

  • That asymptotic approach is a concept I didn't think of bringing to the actually intuitive extent needed to help solve the problem! Thank you a lot for the insight! Just to compare, $p\ge \frac{1}{4}$ is what I'm getting. – D. Petrov Mar 12 '21 at 23:41