I would like your help with proving that $(x^n - 1)$ can divide $(x^{kn} - 1)$ without any remainder. I understand that both of these functions can be translated to a similar form such as $(x^2-1)=(x-1)(x+1)$. But I'm not really sure how to do so. Thank you.
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4You have the right idea: substitute, say $y=x^n$, and try to factor from there. – Integrand Oct 31 '20 at 17:52
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Related 1 - unlikely to be the first time this question appeared. – Jyrki Lahtonen Oct 31 '20 at 21:19
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Also this. – Jyrki Lahtonen Oct 31 '20 at 21:21
3 Answers
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$$(x^n-1)|(x^{kn}-1)$$ can be written
$$(y-1)|(y^k-1).$$
Now by long division,
$$y^k-1=p(y)(y-1)+r$$ where $p$ is a polynomial and $r$ is a scalar constant (zeroth degree polynomial, if you prefer). And plugging $y=1$,
$$0=p(1)\,0+r.$$
You can conclude.
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Notice that $x^{kn} - 1 = (x^n)^k - 1.$ This implies that $x^{kn} - 1 = (x^n - 1)P(x).$