I was reading Dummit and Foote, and in there, there is a line that goes like this:
Since for prime $p$, $p^2-1$ is divisible by $8,$ $x^{p^2-1}-1$ is divisible by $x^8-1$.
I get that $p^2-1$ is divisible by $8.$ But how does that fact imply that $x^{p^2-1}-1$ is divisible by $x^8-1$?