Here is an intuitive way to do an inductive proof that doesn't require knowledge of modular arithmetic yet remains faithful to its arithmetical genesis.
Take notice that $\ 5\cdot 25^n - 3\cdot 9^m - 2\,$ is a special case of below
Theorem $\,\ 30\mid 5(1\!+\!6a)^n - 3(1\!+\!10b)^m - 2,\,$ for $\,a,b\in\Bbb Z,\, n,m\in\Bbb N.\ \ \ $ Proof:
By induction on $\,n\,$we can show $\, 5(1+6a)^n\! =\, 5 + 30j\ $ for some $\ j\in\Bbb Z.\,$ By the same proof
by induction on $m$ we can show $\,3(1\!+\!10b)^m\! =\:\! 3 + 30k\,$ for some $\,k\in \Bbb Z$
Subtracting them and $\,2\,$ yields $\,5(1\!+\!6a)^n - 3(1\!+\!10b)^m - 2 = 30(j-k).\ \ {\small\bf QED}$
Remark $ $ Here the employed induction is much more intuitive, essentially amounting to an inductive proof of the first couple terms of the Binomial Theorem, as here. When you learn modular arithmetic such inductions become neatly encapsulated for handy reuse by applications of the Congruence Power Rule, as explained here. In particular we can use the handy mDL law
$$\begin{align} ab\bmod ac\, &=\, a(b\bmod c) = \text{$\!\bmod\!$ Distributive Law [mDL]}\\[.3em]
\Rightarrow\ 5(1\!+\!6a)^n \bmod 30\, &=\, 5((1\!+\!6a)^n\bmod 6) = 5(\color{#c00}{1^n}\!\bmod 6 ) = 5(\color{#c00}1)\end{align}\qquad\qquad\qquad$$
which reduces the proof to an extremely trivial induction $\,\color{#c00}{1^n\equiv 1}.\,$