I came across a question which basically said that we needed to use the Binomial theorem to show that if $x_{n} > 0$, and $(1+x_{n})^{n}$ = n, then $x_{n}^{2} \le \frac{2}{n}$. Conclude that $n^\frac{1}{n} \to1$.
I am so confused as to how to proceed with this since it seems that we apply the Binomial Theorem to $(1+x_{n})^{n}$ but since we don't have an exact value of n, how do I expand this? And even if I do, how to deduce from there than $x_{n}^{2} \le \frac{2}{n}$? Can someone please help? Thanks!