First, I'd like to address that this question is similar to " $L^p$ and $L^q$ space inclusion" or "Proving that $L^p \subset L^q$ when $1 \le q \le p$". But I was wondering if we can prove it without using Jensen's inequality or using $$||f||_p\leq ||f||_q\lambda(\mathbb{T})^{1/q-1/p}$$ which can be obtained by applying Holder's inequality on $|f|^p\cdot 1$. As for the latter case, if I was using it, what would then $\lambda(\mathbb{T})$ be? (Here $\lambda$ is the Lebesgue measure). How do I know that $\lambda(\mathbb{T})$ is finite if that's the case?
Let $\mathbb{T}$ be a set $\mathbb{R}\backslash 2\pi\mathbb{Z} = \{x + 2\pi\mathbb{Z} : x \in [-\pi, \pi)\}$. Let $f \in L^q(\mathbb{T})$ and show that $L^q(\mathbb{T}) \subseteq L^p(\mathbb{T})$. Then $$||f||_q^q=\int_{\mathbb{T}}|f|^q\ dx<\infty.$$ As a hint, I apparently should use the Holder's inequality. But I don't quite see how to use this inequality.