Let $a,b \in \mathbb{Z}^+ $. If $b\mid a$ and $b\mid (a+2)$ , prove that $b=1$ or $b=2$. Now, we have $a = b\,n$ and $a+2 = b\,m$ for some $m$ and $n$ in $\mathbb{Z}$. Suppose that $b \ne 1$. So, we have $2 = (m-n) b$. This means that $b\mid 2$. Since $b \in \mathbb{Z}^+ $ and $b \ne 1$, we have $b \geqslant 2$. So, $b \geqslant (m-n) b$. Since $b > 0$, we get $(m-n) \leqslant 1$. Now, since $2 = (m-n) b$, we have $(m-n) > 0 $ and since $(m-n) \in \mathbb{Z}$, we get $ (m-n) \geqslant 1$. Together with $ (m-n) \leqslant 1$, this means that $(m-n) = 1$. So, we have $b = 2$.
Is this a good proof ?
Thanks