After trying to get my head around this for an embarrassingly long time, I think I need some help... We defined local (lyapunov) stability and asymptotic stability the following way:
An equilibrium $y^*$ of $\dot{y} = f(y)$ is called
stable, if for each $\varepsilon$-neighbourhood $B_\varepsilon (y^*)$ there exists a $\delta$-neighbourhood $B_\delta(y^*)$ such that $$y_0 \in B_\delta(y^*) \implies y(t) \in B_\varepsilon (y^*) \forall t\geq t_0$$
asymptotically stable, if $y^*$ is stable and there exist a $\mu$-neighbourhood $B_{\mu} (y^*)$ such that $$y_0 \in B_{\mu} (y^*) \implies \lim_{t \to \infty} y(t, y_0) = y^*$$
Ok so up to here both defintions make total sense to me. Now here comes my trouble: Later in the lecture we define "global stability" just with the following sentence:
"An equilibrium is called globally stable, if it is stable for (almost) all initial conditions, not just some which are close to the equilibrium $y^*$."
We don't introduce global asymptotic stability at all. But doesn't this definition of global stability imply $\lim_{t\to\infty} y(t, y_0) = y^* $ for all $y_0$? We also use this to prove global stability once. But wouldn't this be the definition of global asymptotic stability? What is the difference between the two? We go on to Lyapunov functions and mention there that under certain conditions you get global stability while if additionally $\dot V =0$ you get global asymptotic stability.
This course isn't really about stability analysis so we didn't go into depth at all, or provided any proofs but I would really like to understand the difference between global stability and global asymptotic stability. I've read everything on google and found nothing, so I probably don't see something extremely trivial. Any help is appreciated!