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If $x_0=1$ and $x_n=\dfrac {1}{1+x_{(n-1)}}$, find $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to\infty} x_n$.

My attempt:

$x_1=1+\dfrac 1 2=\dfrac 3 2$

$x_2=1+\dfrac {1}{1+\frac 3 2}=\dfrac2 5$

Which gives following series:

$$1, \frac32, \frac35,\frac 58, \frac 8 {13}, \dots$$

Since the denominator is greater than the numerator, the limit of $x_n=0$ when $x\to\infty$. I do not think this result is correct. I think this problem must have a solution using continued fractions. Any idea?

an4s
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sirous
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  • Your last sentence is totally false. Is $\lim_{n\to \infty} \frac{n-1}{n}$ equal to $0$, simply because the denominator is greater than numerator? You must instead endeavor to find the relation between the denominator and numerator of these fractions, which resemble the Fibonacci sequence. Alternately, if you can prove that $x_n$ is convergent (and not to $-1$) then taking limits in $x_n = \frac{1}{1+x_{n-1}}$ gives you candidates for the limit of $x_n$. – Sarvesh Ravichandran Iyer Aug 08 '20 at 07:25
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    You mean $n \rightarrow \infty$? – Tojra Aug 08 '20 at 07:29
  • Check the infinite continued fraction for $\phi$ – Tojra Aug 08 '20 at 07:32

3 Answers3

6

You miscalculated the two first initial terms of the sequence.

$x_{1}=\frac{1}{1+x_{0}}=\frac{1}{1+1}=\frac{1}{2}$ and $x_{2}=\frac{1}{1+x_{1}}=\frac{1}{1+\frac{1}{2}}=\frac{2}{3}$.

Let's try to apply the Fixed Point Theorem. Consider $I=[\frac{1}{2},1]$ and $f(x)=\frac{1}{1+x}$ defined in $I$.

  1. $f$ is continuous in $I$
  2. $f(I)\subset I$ once $f'<0$
  3. $f$ is Lipschitz continuous because as $f$ is a function of class $C^1$ you have that $|f'(x)|=\frac{1}{(1+x)^2}\leq \frac{1}{1+\frac{1}{2}}=\frac{2}{3}$. Then for any $x,y \in I$ $\Rightarrow$ $|f(x)-f(y)|\leq\frac{2}{3}|x-y|$.

Then $x_{n}$ converges for the only fixed point of $f$ in $I$, i.e., $l=\frac{1}{1+l}$.

3

First, try to show that a limit even exists in the first place. Then, in doing so, let

$$L := \lim_{n \to \infty} x_n$$

With this, then, taking the limit of both sides of your equation gives us

$$L = \frac{1}{1+L}$$

This will give you two possible values for $L$. Use $x_0$ and a convergence argument to determine which $L$ is the value relevant for your case.


You are right in that this references continued fractions in a sense. If you imagine expanding the recursion backwards, you'll get

$$L = \cfrac{1}{1+ \cfrac{1}{1+ \cfrac{1}{1+ \cfrac{1}{1+ \ddots}}}}$$

There is a self-similarity here: namely everything below the second numerator is in fact just $L$ itself:

$$L = \frac{1}{1+L}$$

However, this is not a fully rigorous way to handle the problem. For instance, it tells you possible values of $L$, but not which ones actually are valid - or, indeed, if any of them are. (Heck, the value of $x_0$ is important, even: there's a value for $x_0$ in this case in which you would get a different $L$ than in your case and in nearly every other case.) An infinite process like this is almost always defined in terms of a limit of the smaller, finite process. For instance, like how we define

$$\sum_{k=1}^\infty a_n := \lim_{n \to \infty} \sum_{n=1}^k a_n$$

We'd first have to know that the limit in question even exists in the first place before assigning the infinite sum a value via any other means. Such is mathematical rigor.

I give a further elaboration on this sort of notion in this answer which ties into continued fractions (particularly the well-known one for $\varphi = (1 + \sqrt 5)/2$ and its conjugate), how we define these, and the convergence of a continued fraction's "partial fractions."

PrincessEev
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    How do you prove that this sequence is convergent? Because if you prove this ,it is easy to find the limit. All we have ,this sequence is bounded and oscillates. – A learner Aug 08 '20 at 07:48
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It is very simple Fibonacci squence $\lim_{n\to+\infty} x_n=\lim_{n\to+\infty}\frac{F_{n-1}}{F_n}=\frac{a}{a}=1$ $a^2+a=1$; $ F_1=1$ ; $F_{n+1}=F_n+F_{n-1}$

ratatuy
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