The set $B\subset\mathbb R$ is called Bernstein set if neither $B$ nor $\mathbb R\setminus B$ contains any perfect sets.
Theorem: $\mathbb R$ can be written as continuum many of pairwise disjoint Bernstein sets.
Proof: Let $\mathcal{P}$ be a family of all perfect subsets of $\mathbb R$. Then $|\mathcal{P}\times\mathbb R|=\mathfrak c , $ so we can choose an enumeration $\{\langle P_\xi,y_\xi\rangle\colon\xi<\mathfrak c\}$ of $\mathcal{P} \times \mathbb R.$ We will construct, by induction on $\xi<\mathfrak c,$ a sequence $\{x_\xi\colon \xi<\mathfrak c\}$ such that
$$x_\xi\in P_\xi\setminus\{x_\zeta\colon \zeta<\xi\}$$
Since each $x_\lambda\neq x_\xi$ for all $\lambda<\xi<\mathfrak c$, we can define $f$ on $\{x_\xi\colon \xi<\mathfrak c\}$ such that $f(x_\xi)=y_\xi$ and $f(x)=0$ otherwise.
Claim : $f^{-1}(r)$ is Bernstein set for each $r\in\mathbb R.$
Indeed, for each $r\in\mathbb R$ and $P\in\mathcal P$ there is an $\xi<\mathfrak c$ such that $\langle r,P\rangle = \langle r_\xi, P_\xi \rangle$, then $x_\xi\in f^{-1}(r_\xi)\cap P_\xi=f^{-1}(r) \cap P\neq \emptyset.$ Also the same true for the complement for $f^{-1}(r)$ (as $f^{-1}(t)$ where $t\neq r$). Then $f^{-1} (r)$ is Bernstein for all $r\in\mathbb R$. It is clear that $$ \mathbb R=\bigcup_{r\in\mathbb R} f^{-1} (r)$$ as we need.
I have no probelm with this proof at all. My question is Can we have the same result without define function like that? I mean just start to construct the by transfinite induction. I would love to see completely different approache to get the same result. I am hoping for theos who have deeply understanding for transfinite induction to share their proofs.