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Show that the following limit holds $$ \lim_{n\rightarrow\infty} \frac{\binom{n}{k}}{2^n} =0 $$ for a fixed value of $k$

I really am just stuck at the first step here. Normally I would consider tackling this using L'Hopitals rule, however $\binom{n}{k}$ is not differentiable. I was considering using the binomial theorem, but that is for sums, not just the single scenario. Any help appreciated!

wjmccann
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2 Answers2

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If you accept as known $\binom{n}{k} \leqslant \frac{n^k}{k!}$, then you obtain it by estimation.

Addition: added second part, as it can be helpful for somebody. $$\frac{n^k}{k^k} \leqslant \binom{n}{k} \leqslant \frac{n^k}{k!}$$

zkutch
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    But even if you don’t accept this, it suffices to accept that it is less than $n^k$. This is indeed true because $n^k$ is the number of ways to pick $k$ objects from $n$ objects with repetition allowed and the order matters. This certainly overcounts the number of ways where we can pick $k$ objects from $n$, but where there are no repetitions and the order doesn’t matter (which is what ${n \choose k}$ represents). – paulinho Jun 17 '20 at 04:45
  • @zkutch Note this involves the basic case where exponentials (i.e., $2^n$) grow faster than any polynomial (i.e., $\frac{n^k}{k!}$), which you can also prove using L'Hôpital's rule on the numerator & denominator $k$ times. – John Omielan Jun 17 '20 at 04:46
  • @John Omielan. Sorry, I miss your idea - of course exponent grow faster than any polynomial, but what you want to say? I put simplest way I know. – zkutch Jun 17 '20 at 04:57
  • @zkutch I was just pointing out not only for yourself, but also for anybody else reading it, a few extra possibly useful details. I didn't mean to imply anything was wrong with your answer, and I also wasn't asking or expecting you to say anything in particular, which is why I started my comment with "Note". – John Omielan Jun 17 '20 at 05:02
  • @John Omielan. Thanks for explanation. Let me, also from my side, add for such people, that it is possible to say more: $\binom{n}{k} \sim C(k)n^k$ where $C(k)$ depends only on $k$. – zkutch Jun 17 '20 at 05:06
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Set k = n since it is the greatest it will ever be. The numerator will never surpass 1. So you simply have the ratio of 1 to infinity.