Let $\phi:A\to B$ be a ring homomorphism inducing $f :\operatorname{Spec}(B) \to \operatorname{Spec}(A)$ on spectra. Let $M$ be an $A$-module and $\widetilde{M}$ be the corresponding quasi coherent sheaf on $\operatorname{Spec}(A)$.
I define the pullback of an $\mathcal{O}_A$ -module $\mathcal{F}$ to be
$$f^{*} \mathcal{F} = f^{-1}\mathcal{F} \otimes_{f^{-1}\mathcal{O}_A} \mathcal{O}_B$$
I want to show that $f^*\widetilde{M} \simeq \widetilde{M\otimes_A B}$. In Hartshorne it is said that this follows directly from definitions, however, the definition of the pullback involves taking limits, sheafifying, taking the tensor product and sheafifying again, so opening all of that doesn't seem so simple.
I know that the stalks of these two sheaves at $q\triangleleft B$ are equal to $M_{\phi^{-1}q} \otimes_{A_{\phi^{-1}q}} B_q$, since all of the relevant operations act nicely on stalks, so I am missing a map between the two sheaves that would induce identity on the stalks.
So I want to define an $f^{-1}\mathcal{O}_A$- bilinear map $f^{-1}\widetilde{M}\times\mathcal{O}_B \to \widetilde{M\otimes_A B}$, that it suffices to define on distinguished $D(g)\subset \operatorname{Spec}(B)$, but I don't see how to express $(f^{-1}\widetilde{M})(D(g))$ in a reasonable way, and in any case, I think that there should be a very simple proof because Hartshorne says this follows directly from definitions.
I just don't have a good intuition on what is going on here.