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About a week ago I answered the question Curious limit of a sequence used to prove Etemadi's SLLN where I proved the following elementary lemma of Etemadi:

Lemma (Etemadi). Let $\{x_{n}\}_{n=1}^{\infty}$ be a sequence of non-negative real numbers. If $$\lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{1}{\left\lceil{r^n}\right\rceil}\sum\limits_{i=1}^{\lceil{r^n}\rceil}x_{i} = c$$ for all $r >1$ with $r\in \mathbb{R}$, then $$\lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{1}{n}\sum\limits_{i=1}^{n}x_{i} = c.$$

I'm wondering, how far does Etemadi's lemma generalise? I'm looking for a "nontrivial" larger class of functions $f:\mathbb N \to \mathbb R$ for which the title statement holds true.

I will also accept as an Answer any sequence $x_n$ such that the limit condition of the lemma is satisfied, but not the conclusion, or more generally a function $f$ such that $f(\lceil r^n \rceil) \to L$ for every $r>1$ but $f(n)$ does not converge to $L$ as $n\to\infty$ along the integers.

PS: I don't expect this to be relevant in the solution, but this is superficially reminiscent of an infamous exercise that relies on the Baire Category theorem:

If $f$ is continuous and $f(r^n) \to L$ for all $r>1$, then $f(x) \to L$ as $x\to\infty$ (along the real numbers).

This is usually written using the function $F(t) = f(e^t)$, so that the assumption is instead "If $F$ is continuous and $F(nx) \to L$ for every $x>0$". This exercise has been on MSE before, see for instance this link (thanks PhoemueX!)

Calvin Khor
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  • I googled it (one reference) for you: https://math.stackexchange.com/a/3046651/151552 – PhoemueX May 03 '20 at 13:03
  • @PhoemueX thanks! I have added this to the question body – Calvin Khor May 03 '20 at 13:28
  • There is problem here in the ceiling function. This restricts the function $f$ to being tested on integers only. This works well for the lemma, as the function is only defined on integers. but the other theorem is about $f$ defined over all reals, and the function is tested on all real arguments. For your question, are you just wanting $f$ defined on integers only? If not, then you obviously need the behavior of $f$ everywhere tied to its behavior on integers. – Paul Sinclair May 03 '20 at 16:04
  • @PaulSinclair I'm aware that the similarity to the exercise is only superficial. For my question, yes, $f$ defined on the integers – Calvin Khor May 03 '20 at 16:24
  • That needs to be put in your question instead of expecting people to read through the comments to discover it. – Paul Sinclair May 03 '20 at 19:56
  • @PaulSinclair sorry, is it better now? – Calvin Khor May 03 '20 at 23:51

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