Lines in $\mathbb{R}^3$ are all congruent to one another, but circles in $\mathbb{R}^3$ are not all congruent to one another (because two different circles may have different radii). Visually, this is completely obvious. However, I would like a group-theoretic explanation for this.
I am thinking of $\mathbb{R}^3$ as the homogeneous space $\mathbb{R}^3 = \frac{G}{G_0} = \frac{\text{SE}(3)}{\text{SO}(3)}$, where $G = \text{SE}(3)$ is the group of (orientation-preserving) rigid motions and $G_0 = \text{SO}(3)$ is the stabilizer of the origin.
A line in $\mathbb{R}^3$ is an orbit of a point in $\mathbb{R}^3$ by a subgroup $H \leq G$ that is conjugate to the subgroup $\{ (x_1, x_2, x_3) \mapsto (x_1 + t, x_2, x_3) \colon t \in \mathbb{R}\}$ of translations by the vector $(1,0,0)$.
A circle in $\mathbb{R}^3$ is an orbit of a point in $\mathbb{R}^3$ by a subgroup $K \leq G$ that is conjugate to the subgroup $\{ (x_1 + ix_2, x_3) \mapsto (e^{i\theta}(x_1 + ix_2), x_3) \colon e^{i\theta} \in \mathbb{S}^1\}$ of rotations around the $x_3$-axis.
Two subsets $S_1, S_2$ of $\mathbb{R}^3$ are congruent if there exists $g \in \text{SE}(3)$ such that $S_2 = g \cdot S_1$.
Given these definitions of "line" and "circle" --- as orbits of subgroups --- how could we have known that all lines in $\text{SE}(3)/\text{SO}(3)$ are congruent, but not all circles in $\text{SE}(3)/\text{SO}(3)$ have this property?
In other words: What are the relevant aspects of the subgroups $H$, $K$, and $G_0$ that explain the $G$-equivalence of $H$-orbits in $G/G_0$, as opposed to the non-$G$-equivalence of all $K$-orbits in $G/G_0$?