I was studying this theorem and am struggling to understand the proof:
The proof I studied is as follows:
It is given that $f=f(x,y) $.
let $f=z \quad \rightarrow \quad dx=(\frac{\partial x}{\partial y})_z \ dy+(\frac{\partial x}{\partial z})_y \ dz \quad [1] \quad $ and $\quad dy=(\frac{\partial y}{\partial x})_y \ dx+(\frac{\partial y}{\partial z})_x \ dz \quad [2]$
Substituting [2] into [1] we get:
$dx=(\frac{\partial x}{\partial y})_z(\frac{\partial y}{\partial x})_z \ dx+[(\frac{\partial x}{\partial y})_z(\frac{\partial y}{\partial z})_x+(\frac{\partial x}{\partial z})_y] \ dz$
Now, if we hold x constant and so $dx=0$, we obtain the cyclic relation:
$(\frac{\partial x}{\partial y})_z(\frac{\partial y}{\partial z})_x(\frac{\partial x}{\partial y})_z=-1$
What I don't understand here is that, how can our expression include $(\frac{\partial x}{\partial y})_z$ when we've stated, in our proof, that $x$ must be taken to be a constant? Wouldn't this factor then be equal to $0$ since $x$ isn't changing?