I'm trying to check a bound on Stieltjes transform of a probability measure, that's given in equation (2.92) on P. 170 in Terence Tao's notes "Topics in Random Matrix Theory". Denote the Stieltjes transform of the probability measure $\mu$ by $s_{\mu}(z)$. Then the bound mentioned in his notes is:
$zs_{\mu}(z)= 1 + o_{\mu}(z)$ as $z= x+iy \to \infty$ so that $|\frac{x}{y}|$ is bounded. N.B. here "$o_{\mu}(z)$" is a notation used to denote $o(z)$ but with highlighting the fact that $z=x+iy\to \infty$ with $|x/y|$ bounded, and that the convergence rate depends on $\mu$.
But all I'm getting, at least under a special case, is: under the same condition of convergence, mentioned just now, $zs_{\mu}(z)= -1 + o_{\mu}(z)$, which I demonstrate below.
For the special case that I'll treat, just assume that: $\frac{x}{y}=K$. But if you follow my computation below, you'll see that the end result wouldn't change in the limit if you assume $|\frac{x}{y}|\leq K$.
$$zs_{\mu}(z) = \int_{\mathbb{R}} \frac{z}{t-z}d\mu(t)=\int_{\mathbb{R}} \frac{z(t-\bar{z})}{|t-z|^2}d\mu(t)= \int_{\mathbb{R}}\frac{(tx - x^2 - y^2)+i(ty)} {(t-x)^2 + y^2 }d\mu(t)= \int_{\mathbb{R}}\frac{(\frac{x}{y}.\frac{t}{y}- (\frac{x}{y})^2-1) + i(\frac{t}{y})}{(\frac{x}{y})^2+1}d\mu(t)= -1 + \int_{\mathbb{R}}\frac{K+1}{K^2 + 1}\frac{t}{y}d\mu(t)= -1 + \frac{K+1}{K^2 + 1}.\frac{\mathbb{E}[\mathbb{I}]}{y}$$, where $\mathbb{E}[\mathbb{I}]$ is really the expectation of the identity function $\mathbb{I}(t):=t$ w.r.t. $\mu$. Assume it exists for now!
Note that, above, since $z=x+iy \to \infty$ but $|x/y|$ is bounded (actually I assumed that $|x/y|$ is constant to make things bit easy), we must have $y \to \infty$, yielding:
$zs_{\mu}(z)= -1 + o_{\mu}(z)$, disproving $zs_{\mu}(z)= 1 + o_{\mu}(z)$. Did I do something wrong in my calculation?
Also note that: if you take: $\mu$ to be the Dirac measure at $0$, i.e. $\mu = \delta_0$, then $s_{\mu}(z)= -1/z$, which does satisfy: $zs_{\mu}(z)= -1 + o_{\mu}(z)$, but not $zs_{\mu}(z)= 1 + o_{\mu}(z)$.
Thanks for taking a look!
Also, does your comment contradict $zs_{\mu}(z) + 1 =o_{\mu}(z) ?$ Following Tao's notation of $o_{\mu}(z) $, I did interpret it exactly as you wrote: $|zs_{\mu}(z) - 1| =o_{\mu}(z) $. Still, the counterexamples I gave above are valid.
– Learning Math Dec 05 '19 at 18:54Also, could you please be so kind to point out why my calculation and counterexamples aligns with $zs_{\mu}(z)= 1 + o_{\mu}(z)$?
In fact, I totally agree with what he wrote on P.169, because it validates my calculation.
– Learning Math Dec 05 '19 at 19:19