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Let $x,y,z\in\mathbb{R}$, prove that $$4(x^6+y^6+z^6)+5(x^5y+y^5z+z^5x)\ge\dfrac{(x+y+z)^6}{27}$$

I do this sometimes, and I think this problem is very hard, I hope someone can solve. Thank you.

By this way: In china BBs: Have solve this follow equality $$4(x^6+y^6+z^6)+5(x^5y+y^5z+z^5x)\ge 0$$ for $x,y,z\in R$ see:

http://www.aoshoo.com/bbs1/dispbbs.asp?boardid=48&id=24626&authorid=0&page=3&star=1

TMM
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math110
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2 Answers2

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The following proof is rather more computational than I'd have liked. This seems hard to avoid, because the inequality $$ a(x^6+y^6+z^6) + b(x^5 y + y^5 z + z^5 x) \geq 3(a+b) \left(\frac{x+y+z}{3}\right)^6 $$ becomes false if the coefficient ratio $b/a$ is increased from $1.25$ to $1.33$ (try $(x,y,z) = (6,11,-10)$). On the bright side, the technique applies to many other such inequalities.

For $x,y,z \in {\bf R}$ let $$ F(x,y,z) = 4(x^6+y^6+z^6) + 5(x^5 y + y^5 z + z^5 x) - \frac{(x+y+z)^6}{27}. $$ We claim that $F(x,y,z) \geq 0$, with equality if and only if $x=y=z$. By homogeneity and cyclic symmetry we may assume $x=1$ and write $(x,y,z) = (1,1,1) + (0,c,rc)$ for some real $c,r$. [If $y=1$ and $z\neq 1$ we can use the equivalent $(1,1,1) + (rc,0,c)$.] Fixing $r$, we see that $F(x,y,z)$ is a sextic in $c$ with a double root at $c=0$, so we may write $$ F(1,1+c,1+rc) = c^2 Q_r(c) $$ for some quartic $Q_r$. We claim that $Q_r(c) > 0$ for all real $c$. For any given $r$, say $r=0$, this is easy to check by observing that $Q_r(c) > 0$ (for example $Q_0(c) > 65$) and computing the complex roots of $Q_r$ to enough precision to ensure that none of them is real. Now as we vary $r$, the roots must stay non-real as long as they are distinct (because they vary continuously with $Q_r$, which varies continuously with $r$). Well, the discriminant of $Q_r$ with respect to $c$ is a somewhat complicated polynomial $P(r)$, of degree $24$, which however is still small enough to compute all of its complex roots. It turns out that none of them is real either (the smallest imaginary parts are about $\pm 0.11$). Therefore $Q_r$ has distinct roots for all $r \in {\bf R}$, and we are done.

[$P$ is a bit simpler than its degree and coefficient size indicate: the cyclic symmetry of $F$ is inherited by $P$, which satisfies $P(r) = r^{24} P(\frac{r-1}{r})$; NB applying the fractional linear transformation $r \mapsto \frac{r-1}{r}$ three times returns $r$. So we can write $$ \frac{P(r)}{(r-r^2)^8} = P_1\Bigl(\frac{1-3r+r^3}{r-r^2}\Bigr) $$ for some polynomial $P_1$ of degree $8$. But this $P_1$ is still too long to fit in a single-line formula: it is $5^3/3^9$ times the polynomial whose coefficients (listed from leading to constant) are 65402051, 380534982, 2948475267, 8118916470, 30806414100, 47234529054, 159944730867, 165184306830, 420238105803. Here the imaginary parts of the roots are about $\pm 2.06$, $\pm 2.33$, $\pm 2.52$, $\pm 4.35$, all safely far from zero.]

Noam D. Elkies
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  • If $r=0$ then $Q$ has $4$ different complex roots. If $r>1234$ why the roots of $Q_r$ must stay non-real? Why does it follow from the case $r=0$? It seems to me that you should give more details. Also about $P(r)$. – vesszabo Jan 14 '14 at 20:40
  • I did explain this. As $r$ moves from $0$ to (say) $1234$, the roots stay distinct because the discrminant never vanishes; in particular they are never real because if one complex root moved to ${\bf R}$ then its complex conjugate would move to the same point in ${\bf R}$ and two roots would coincide. As for $P$, I don't know what more you want me to say: I gave a formula for it as a discriminant, and exhibited it as $(r^2-r)^8$ times a degree-$8$ polynomial in $(1-3r+r^3)/(r-r^2)$. – Noam D. Elkies Jan 14 '14 at 22:06
  • Thanks, now it is clear your idea. – vesszabo Jan 15 '14 at 11:12
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Definition: $$ f(x,y,z) = 4(x^6+y^6+z^6) + 5(x^5 y + y^5 z + z^5 x) - \frac{(x+y+z)^6}{27} $$ We have to prove that $\;f(x,y,z) \ge 0\;$ for all $\;x,y,z \in {\bf R}$ .
For $\;x=y=z=r\;$ equality holds: $\;f(r,r,r)= 12 r^6 + 15 r^6 - (27^2 r^6)/27 = 0$ .
As has been noticed by user64494, the problem is invariant for scaling the variables with a factor $t$ : if the statement is true for $(x,y,z)$ then it is true for $(t x,t y,t z)$ as well. Meaning that, without loss of generality, we can consider instead only normed solutions, with $t=1/\sqrt{x^2 + y^2 + z^2}$. That is: with $x=y=z=0$ as the only exception. Note, however, that we have already covered this case with $f(r,r,r)=0$ where $r=0$ . Therefore WLOG we can define an additional constraint $\,g\,$ for all $(x,y,z)$ with $(x \ne 0) \vee (y \ne 0) \vee (z \ne 0)$ : $$ g(x,y,z) = x^2 + y^2 + z^2 = 1 $$ In my answer to a similar question, the following key reference is mentioned:

From this reference we have (again) the following
Theorem (The Purkiss Principle). Let $f$ and $g$ be symmetric functions with continuous second derivatives in the neighborhood of a point $P = (r, \cdots, r)$. On the set where $g$ equals $g(P)$, the function $f$ will have a local maximum or minimum at $P$ except in degenerate cases.
The functions $\;f(x,y,z)\;$ and $\;g(x,y,z)\;$ have already been defined accordingly.
Now $\;g(r,r,r) = 3r^2 = 1$ , hence the point $P\;$ is: $(r,r,r) = (1,1,1)/\sqrt{3}\;$ and $\;f(r,r,r) = 0\;$ must be a minimum or a maximum.
It's easy to show that the first and second derivatives of $f$ and $g$ are like the examples in the paper - preceding the proof of the Theorem there; and obeying all of the Lemmas there - thus preventing any exceptions to the Purkiss principle.
First order derivatives: $$ \left[ \begin{array}{c} \partial f / \partial x \\ \partial f / \partial y \\ \partial f / \partial z \end{array} \right] (r,r,r) = \left[ \begin{array}{c} 0 \\ 0 \\ 0 \end{array} \right] = \lambda \left[ \begin{array}{c} \partial g / \partial x \\ \partial g / \partial y \\ \partial g / \partial z \end{array} \right] (r,r,r) = 0 \left[ \begin{array}{c} 2 r \\ 2 r \\ 2 r \end{array} \right] $$ Second order derivatives: $$ \left[ \begin{array}{ccc} \partial^2 f/\partial x^2 & \partial^2 f/\partial x \partial y & \partial^2 f/\partial x \partial z \\ \partial^2 f/\partial x \partial y & \partial^2 f/\partial y^2 & \partial^2 f/\partial y \partial z \\ \partial^2 f/\partial x \partial z & \partial^2 f/\partial y \partial z & \partial^2 f/ \partial z^2 \end{array} \right] (r,r,r) = \left[ \begin{array}{ccc} 130 r^4 & -64 r^4 & -64 r^4 \\ -64 r^4 & 130 r^4 & -64 r^4 \\ -64 r^4 & -64 r^4 & 130 r^4 \end{array} \right]$$ Similar structure, as required, in: $$ \left[ \begin{array}{ccc} \partial^2 g/\partial x^2 & \partial^2 g /\partial x \partial y & \partial^2 g/\partial x \partial z \\ \partial^2 g/\partial x \partial y & \partial^2 g/\partial y^2 & \partial^2 g/\partial y \partial z \\ \partial^2 g/\partial x \partial z & \partial^2 g/\partial y \partial z & \partial^2 g/ \partial z^2 \end{array} \right] (r,r,r) = \left[ \begin{array}{ccc} 2 & 0 & 0 \\ 0 & 2 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & 2 \end{array} \right] $$ The form of the second order derivatives matrices guarantees that $\;f(r,r,r)\;$ must be a minimum.

Update in response to the comment by David Speyer.
Due to the constraint $x^2+y^2+z^2=1$ the whole problem can be re-formulated in spherical coordinates: $(x,y,z)=(\cos(\theta)\cos(\phi),\cos(\theta)\sin(\phi),\sin(\theta))$ with $-\pi/2<\theta<+\pi/2$ and $-\pi<\phi<+\pi$ . Substitute these into $f(x,y,z)$ and make a contour plot $(\phi,\theta)$ . We have done this for $f(x,y,z) = k/3 \; , \; k = 1,\cdots\,15$ . Darker lines correspond with larger values of $f$ . Places where $f(x,y,z) < 0.01$ are colored $\color{red}{red}$ and the places of the minima $\;\pm 1/\sqrt{3}(1,1,1)\;$ in spherical coordinates are indicated with a $\color{blue}{blue}$ circle. We see that the circles and the red spots coincide and that the function values are uniformly decreasing in the neighborhood of these.

enter image description here

Han de Bruijn
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    That verifies that $f$ has a local minimum at $(r,r,r)$, subject to the constraint. But it doesn't show that it is a global minimum. – David E Speyer Jan 14 '14 at 11:44
  • @DavidSpeyer: Thanks; see my update. – Han de Bruijn Jan 14 '14 at 19:43
  • Nice image! It looks like there are $6$ other local minima ($3$ modulo the antipodal map), sitting at the bulges of the roughly equatorial band in light gray. Is that right? Many local minima are often an obstacle to easy proofs of inequalities. – David E Speyer Jan 15 '14 at 19:26
  • @DavidSpeyer: You're quite right. There are many other local minima, but none of them as deep as the two indicated (i.e. the two that we know about). In retrospect, half of the picture i.e $0 \le \phi \le \pi$ would have been sufficient as well. – Han de Bruijn Jan 15 '14 at 19:59
  • Then $f(x,y,z)=0;$ corresponds with $(\theta,\phi)=\arcsin(1/\sqrt{3},1/\sqrt{2})$ . – Han de Bruijn Jan 15 '14 at 20:35