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My Quesion: Prove that for $\alpha\not\in\mathbb{Q},\alpha>0$, $([n+n\alpha])_{n\in\mathbb{N}}\bigcup([n+n\alpha^{-1}])_{n\in\mathbb{N}}=\mathbb{N}$, where $[k]$ means the integral part of $k\in\mathbb{Z}$, and $\sqcup$ means disjoint union.

My Idea: I just realized that $$\frac{1}{1+\alpha}+\frac{1}{1+\alpha^{-1}}=1, \quad\text{where } 1+\alpha, 1+\alpha^{-1} \text{ are positive irrational numbers}$$ So the interested sequences are Beatty's sequences. And here is a proof (page 11-13) for Beatty sequences.

WLOG
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1 Answers1

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"You already provided a complete solution to your problem" Yes, I just proved it.

WLOG
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  • If you propose a Q and answer it and accept your own answer do you gain reputation points for the acceptance? I don't really care. I never thought about it. – DanielWainfleet Oct 17 '19 at 07:21
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    @DanielWainfleet No, I can't get any reputation points by answering my own question. Not wanting to draw any further attention to this solved question, I posted my answer to it. – WLOG Oct 18 '19 at 17:50