Here's a sketch of how it could be proved using classical coordinate-free geometry:
First divide according to whether there's any fixed point of the isometry (i.e. any point that the isometry maps to itself).
If there is at least one fixed point, then it is easy to see that the the isometry must either be a rotation about that point (possibly by 0°, that is, the identity), or a rotation followed by a reflection about a line through the fixed point. And in the latter case, such a composition of a rotation an reflection always amounts to a reflection about some (usually different) line.
Suppose now there is no fixed point. We can then first prove that there exists collinear points $X$, $Y$ and $Z$ such that $X$ maps to $Y$ which maps to $Z$. To see this, select an arbitrary point $A$, and let the isometry map $A$ to $B$, $B$ to $C$, and $C$ to $D$. If $A$, $B$ and $C$ are collinear, then we're done. Otherwise, triangles $ABC$ and $BCD$ are congruent and isosceles. The centers of the circumcircles of $ABC$ and $BCD$ both lie on the perpendicular bisector of $BC$, and have the same distance to $BC$. They cannot be on the same side of $BC$, because then they would be the same point, which would then map to itself, contrary to assumptions. So they are on opposite sides of $BC$, which implies that $A$ and $D$ are on opposite sides of $BC$.
Therefore (by vertical angles) the midpoints of $AB$, $BC$, and $CD$ are collinear, and they clearly have to map to each other.
Thus in any case, an isometry without fixed points must have collinear $X\ne Y\ne Z$ such that $X\mapsto Y \mapsto Z$. Then we must also have $X\ne Z$ because otherwise the midpoint of $XY$ would be equal to the midpoint of $YZ$ which it maps to, and we're assuming no fixed points. In other words, $Y$ is between $X$ and $Z$.
Now it is easy to see that the action of the isometry of any point on the line $XYZ$ must be to translate it by a distance of $|XY|$ along the line -- because that's the only way for it to preserve its distances to both $X$ and $Y$ as they translate along the line.
Furthermore, once the action of the isometry on that line is given, there are only two posible images of each point in the plane outside the line -- one on the same side of the line, and one on the opposite side. Because the isometry is continuous, it must be the same choice of "same side" or "opposite side" for all points on one side of the line, and then, by injectivity, also for points on the other side. "Same side" means that the isometry is a translation of the plane; "opposite side" is a glide symmetry.
Excercise: Why doesn't this argument work for the hyperbolic plane? Does that mean that the hyperbolic plane admits additional conjugacy classes of isometries? (Hint: yes.) Describe them.