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I am trying to prove this relation, which I think can only be evaluated via contour integration: $$ \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}dk\;e^{ikx}\frac{k\sinh\left[k(y-\frac{w}{2})\right]}{\cosh\left(\frac{kw}{2}\right)}=\frac{\pi^{2}}{w^{2}}Re\left[\frac{\cosh[\frac{\pi}{w}(x+iy)]}{\sinh^{2}[\frac{\pi}{w}(x+iy)]}\right] $$ This is equation 18 (see also below Eq 16) in the paper "Linking Spatial Distributions of Potential and Current in Viscous Electronics" (arXiv PDF).

Any help will be highly appreciated.

Blue
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  • @metmorphy, This is the reference "https://arxiv.org/pdf/1607.00986.pdf". Eq: 18 and also see below Eq:16. – Muhammad Imran Aug 10 '19 at 20:07
  • @metamorpy Thanks I have fixed it. I think the contour integral is the only possible route to solve it. – Muhammad Imran Aug 10 '19 at 20:25
  • In fact the absolute value of the integrand in the LHS $k \to f(k)=k.\sinh(Ak)/\cosh(Bk)$ where $A$ and $B$ are constants is not integrable* : $|f|$ tends to $+\infty$ when $k$ tends to $\infty$ !). Thus this integral cannot be used in any elementary meaning (using or not contour integration). It can have only a meaning in the theory of distributions. – Jean Marie Aug 10 '19 at 20:26
  • @JeanMarie: It converges when $|A|<|B|$. – metamorphy Aug 10 '19 at 20:31

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Let $U=\{u\in\mathbb{C} : |\Re u|<1\}$, $u\in U$, and consider $$I_R=\int_{C_R}\frac{e^{uz}\,dz}{\sinh z},$$ where $R>0$, and $C_R$ is the rectangular contour (closed, ccw-oriented) with vertices at $z=\pm R\pm\pi i/2$. By the residue theorem, it is equal to $2\pi i$ times the residue of the integrand at $z=0$: $I_R=2\pi i$. On the other hand, with $R\to\infty$, the integrals over vertical sides vanish, and we have $$\lim_{R\to\infty}I_R=\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\left(\frac{\exp[u(t-\pi i/2)]}{\sinh(t-\pi i/2)}-\frac{\exp[u(t+\pi i/2)]}{\sinh(t+\pi i/2)}\right)\,dt=2i\cos\frac{\pi u}{2}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\frac{e^{ut}\,dt}{\cosh t}.$$ Thus, $\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\frac{e^{ut}\,dt}{\cosh t}=\frac{\pi}{\cos(\pi u/2)}$. Now take the derivative w.r.t. $u$ (which is admissible under the integral sign too), put $u=1+2i(x+iy)/w$ and substitute $t=wk/2$.

(You may happen to know the last integral already; it is related to the $\mathrm{B}$-function.)

metamorphy
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  • Thanks. Can you share any reference book or website for such integrals? – Muhammad Imran Aug 10 '19 at 22:29
  • @metamorphy You are right. My bad. I did the same error as before. – Jean Marie Aug 12 '19 at 02:30
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    As you say, the last integral is known. I was used to it under the following form (see https://math.stackexchange.com/q/799616) that the Fourier Transform of $1/\cosh(t)$ is $\pi/\cosh(\pi \omega/2)$, which, expressed with integrals, is : $\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}e^{-i \omega t}\dfrac{dt}{\cosh(t)}=\dfrac{\pi}{\cosh(\pi \omega/2)}$. The intuitive thing behind this is that the inverse of $\cosh$ is (very approximately) Gaussian, therefore has an (approximative again) Gaussian Fourier Transform. – Jean Marie Aug 12 '19 at 02:49