For the special case $ab \equiv 1 \pmod{p}$, I already got very clear explanation from Arturo Magidin and Quanta in this thread Prove that if $ab \equiv 1 \pmod{p}$ and $a$ is quadratic residue mod $p$, then so is $b$
Now if $ab \equiv r \pmod{p}$, what condition need to be hold in order for this to be true, i.e If $a$ is quadratic residue modulo $p$, then $b$ is also quadratic residue modulo $p$. My attempt was, I made a concrete example to observe the value of $r$, says $p = 7$. The results are: 1, 4, 5 $$1^2 \equiv 1 \pmod{7}$$ $$2^2 \equiv 4 \pmod{7}$$ $$3^2 \equiv 2 \pmod{7}$$ $$4^2 \equiv 1 \pmod{7}$$ $$5^2 \equiv 4 \pmod{7}$$ $$6^2 \equiv 1 \pmod{7}$$
So $r$ could be $1$, $2$, $4$, since $4.4 \equiv 1 \pmod{7}$ and $4.2 \equiv 1 \pmod{7}$. From these results, I saw that $r$ was also quadratic residue modulo $p$. Another idea that I tried is adapting the proof from the mentioning thread above: If $ab \equiv r \pmod{p}$, then $$aa^{-1}b \equiv ra^{-1} \pmod{p} \Leftrightarrow b \equiv ra^{-1} \pmod{p}$$ $$bb^{-1}a \equiv rb^{-1} \pmod{p} \Leftrightarrow a \equiv rb^{-1} \pmod{p}$$
Then I tried to use the fact that $x^2 \equiv a \pmod{p}$, and $a \equiv rb^{-1} \pmod{p}$ to come with $x^2 \equiv rb^{-1} \pmod{p}$. But I could not find a way to express this in term of $y^2 \equiv b \pmod{p}$. Furthermore, I don't know if this algebraic manipulation could solve the condition for $r$ or not. Any idea? A hint would be greatly appreciated.
Thank you