I am trying to understand this proof to the question: $L^p$ and $L^q$ space inclusion.
Here is the linked answer I am reading:
There is a easy way to show that. Suppose that $p<q$ and X a space measure finite. Take any $f\in L^q$. Then, the q-norm is finite. In this way, $$\int_X|f|^p = \int_{f(x)<1}|f|^p + \int_{f\geq1}|f|^p \leq\int1+\int_{f\geq1}|f|^q\leq\mu(X)+||f||_q^q<\infty$$ A counter example just take $$f(x)=\frac{1}{x}$$ for $x\in(0,\infty)$ and Lebesgue measure. Then $f$ belongs to $L^2$ (integral is 1) but not $L^1$.
Here are my questions:
Why do the first and second inequality in the following hold?
$$\int_{f(x)<1}|f|^rd\mu\le\int 1d\mu\le\mu(X)$$
And on what set does one integrate in the notation $\int 1d\mu$?