Summary
I think that the following sum $$\sum_{i=1}^\infty{i\left((1-p^{i+1})^m-(1-p^{i})^m\right)}$$ is $O(\log m)$, where $0<p<1$ and $m \geq 1$. However, I was not able to prove it formally, despite my endless efforts (binomial expansions, derivation, majoration, etc. and combination thereof).
Context
I was studying a variation of the skip list data structure. Each key in a skip list is associated a "tower" of a certain height. Height is chosen by repeatedly tossing a coin: with probability $p$ the tower grows of one level, with probability $1-p$ we stop. Consider $m$ keys and the random variable "maximum level of the towers of that $m$ keys". The above expression is the expected value of this RV. Strangely enough standard literature about skip lists takes a sort of work around to prove that the number of levels are $O(\log n)$ where $n$ is the number of keys in the skip list.
Experiments with Mathematica
It is possible to numerically support my conjecture. The following is a Mathematica experiment.
maxi = 100;
maxm = 10^9;
G[m_] := Sum[i*((1 - p^(i + 1))^m - (1 - p^i)^m), {i, 0, maxi}];
p = 0.5;
delta = G[m] - Log[1/p, m] /. m -> maxm;
DiscretePlot[{G[m], Log[1/p, m]}, {m, 1, maxm, maxm/200},
PlotLegends -> "Expressions"]
DiscretePlot[G[m] - Log[1/p, m] - delta, {m, 1, maxm, maxm/100}]
we get chart of both the sum and the log function up to $m=10^9$ and chart of their difference. The latter chart is a bit funny, I do not know if it is a numerical phenomenon or a ripple of the function itself.