My math teacher was explaining how to draw graphs of given functions. For $f(x)=x^x$ he put the domain as $(0,\infty)$. Why is this true (if it is)? For $x= -2$, $(-2)^{-2}$ is $1/4$, and so the function is defined at $x= -2$. Isn't it?
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Hi! To typeset equations in MathJax and to improve readability in general, check out this link: https://math.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/5020/mathjax-basic-tutorial-and-quick-reference for a tutorial. – Emory Sun May 03 '19 at 15:25
3 Answers
For negative numbers, the sign of the function changes with the values of $x$ and hence plotting a continuous graph is not possible.
For simplicity, consider $x = -1$, Then $f(-1) = (-1)^{-1} = -1$.
Whereas at $x = -2$, $f(-2) = (-2)^{-2} = 1/4$

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Powers of the negatives are problematic. You can define rational powers using roots, and some fail to exist ($(-\frac14)^{-\frac14}$ ?). An irrational power of a negative is even a worse beast.
But you are right, you could extend the domain to a subset of the negative rationals.
As drhab suggested, this is a nice way to answer your question. But as additional comment, personally, I would attribute this as a convention (and a very good one). Technically, there is no supposed "right" or "wrong" here, but appending additional elements for which $x^x$ is defined in the reals is probably not that good of an idea.
Of course, $x^x$ is defined (in the real numbers) for some $x < 0$, but for most $x < 0$ (like $x = -1/2$ or $x = - \pi$ or $x = -3/4$), $x^x$ is not defined. Ideally, we would like our function $x^x$ to satisfy a number of nice properties on its domain, like continuity, differentiability, etc., but defining the domain of $x^x$ to be $[0, +\infty)$ and the union of all the nonpositive integers we would lose all of these properties.
Moreover, $f(x) = x^x$ is defined in the complex numbers without any of the sort of problems that real numbers face, so as Marc van Leeuwen said, why would we want to mix two different definitions that describe the same idea in such an unfruitful manner? It's better just to restrict $x^x$ to the domain $[0, +\infty)$.

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You should make the interval open at $0$ as $0^0$ is not defined. – Ross Millikan May 03 '19 at 15:36
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$0^0$ is, in most accounts, defined as $1$, which is the convention I'm going for. – Emory Sun May 03 '19 at 15:37
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No, we have questions on that. One could define it as $1$-continuity in the base variable holding the exponent fixed, or as $0$-continuity in the exponent holding the base fixed. The usual convention is to prohibit it entirely. We have that question here,here, – Ross Millikan May 03 '19 at 15:43
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This seems to be a highly debated topic that I'm not ready to dive into. I personally enjoy the convention that $0^0 = 1$, having recently learned some set theory, but perhaps my viewpoint will change over time, with more mathematical maturity. In either case, I don't think it matters too much in answering this question. – Emory Sun May 03 '19 at 15:49