Is there any other way to prove it rather than proving it using the formula by definition ?
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"...rather that... what? – DonAntonio Mar 04 '19 at 15:15
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1Related (duplicate?): Intuitive understanding of the derivatives of $\sin x$ and $\cos x$ – Blue Mar 04 '19 at 15:16
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$;(\sin x)'=\cos;$ for any $;x\in\Bbb R;$ (in radians!) because that's what we get when we calculate the limit that defines the derivative of $;\sin x;$ ...what else? – DonAntonio Mar 04 '19 at 15:16
1 Answers
I'll present an "algebraic" proof of why the derivative of $\sin x$ in indeed "only $\cos x$." There are of course other, more geometric explanations that are more insightful as to why this intuitively makes sense.
By the definition of a derivative, \begin{equation*} \frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d} x} \sin (x) = \lim\limits_{h \to 0} \frac{\sin (x+h) - \sin x}{h}. \end{equation*} Applying the trigonometric identity $\sin (a \pm b) = \sin a \cos b \pm \sin b \cos a$ gives us \begin{align*} \lim\limits_{h \to 0} \frac{\sin (x+h) - \sin x}{h} &= \lim\limits_{h \to 0} \frac{\sin x \cos h + \sin h \cos x -\sin x}{h} \\ &= \lim\limits_{h \to 0} \frac{\sin x (\cos h - 1) + \sin h \cos x}{h} \\ &= \lim\limits_{h \to 0} \frac{\sin x (\cos h - 1)}{h} + \lim\limits_{h \to 0} \frac{\sin h \cos x}{h}. \end{align*} Note that $\sin x$ and $\cos x$ are constant when we evaluate the derivative, so \begin{equation*} \lim\limits_{h \to 0} \frac{\sin x (\cos h - 1)}{h} + \lim\limits_{h \to 0} \frac{\sin h \cos x}{h} = \sin x \left(\lim\limits_{h \to 0} \frac{(\cos h - 1)}{h}\right) + \cos x \left(\lim\limits_{h \to 0} \frac{\sin h}{h}\right). \end{equation*} We can see that $\lim\limits_{h \to 0} \frac{(\cos h - 1)}{h}$ converges to $0$ and $\lim\limits_{h \to 0} \frac{\sin h}{h}$ converges to $1$. Applying these results to the previous equations gives us \begin{equation*} \frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d} x} \sin (x) = (\sin x)(0) + (\cos x)(1) = \cos x. \end{equation*}
Note that similar logic can be used to derive the derivative of $\cos x$. These two results can then be used to derive the derivatives of other trigonometric functions such as $\tan x$ or $\csc x$.

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2The OP asked for a proof that is not "proving it using the formula by definition". While I admit that I have no idea what it means, it surely asks for something that is not your (otherwise excellent) answer, since you used a formula and a definition. – lisyarus Mar 04 '19 at 15:19
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But what can we conclude from this proof i mean what is the hidden answer or logic of two lines to explain that cos is the only derivative of sine ? – Javeria Zun Mar 05 '19 at 03:03
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@JaveriaZun the answers to the related question linked above provided a few geometric arguments for the relationship between the derivatives of $\sin$ and $\cos$. Are these of any help? – Brian61354270 Mar 05 '19 at 03:09
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@Brian S yes these are very helpful but i just want a simple logical answer in words ....i mean by seeing this proof what is the answer that comes to our mind that this is the logic behind this answer ? – Javeria Zun Mar 05 '19 at 03:26