In the answer to a different question someone wrote:
Let $\omega = e^{2 \pi i / n}$ which implies $\omega^n = 1$. $$ 1 + \omega + \omega^2 + \ldots + \omega^{n-1} = \frac{\omega^n-1}{\omega-1} = 0 $$
I tried to understand this for at least two hour now, and thought, that it maybe had something to do with geometric series but I can't quite figure it out.
I think what's confusing me most, is that in other places (Wikipedia and yet another math.stackexchange question) the formula for geometric series looks like this:
for $N$ finite $$ \sum_{n=0}^Nar^n=a\frac{1-r^N}{1-r},\:\:\:\: r\ne1$$
So I don't really see, why the intermediate result is
$$\frac{\omega^n-1}{\omega-1}$$
instead of
$$\frac{1-\omega^n}{1-\omega}$$
Thank you so much. You saved my evening.
– Boris Month Feb 17 '19 at 22:06