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$$\lim_{n \to \infty} n\bigg(1-\dfrac{1}{e}\bigg(1+\dfrac{1}{n}\bigg)^{n} \bigg)$$

If I write expansion of $\bigg(1+\dfrac{1}{n}\bigg)^{n}$ it was equal to expansion of $e$ so $n-n=0$. Is limit is zero ?

Edit: Uploading screen shot of my response. They marked it correct and I don't know if answer key is wrong or not ? Please can anyone say for sure like with $100$ percent surety if answer given is wrong. enter image description here

Daman
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  • See also: https://math.stackexchange.com/q/1093534 https://math.stackexchange.com/q/1706711 https://math.stackexchange.com/q/3534946 – Martin Sleziak Feb 05 '20 at 06:18

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