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I'm asked to give a formal proof of $(p → q) → (¬q → ¬p)$ using natural deduction. Is that like saying prove $⊢ (p → q) → (¬q → ¬p$), where it should be proved from nothing?

Key Flex
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The following proof uses modus tollens (MT):

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However, one can derive the modus tollens rule in the following way. This uses the proof provided on page 138 of forallx linked to below along with a link to the proof checker used here:

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Kevin Klement's JavaScript/PHP Fitch-style natural deduction proof editor and checker http://proofs.openlogicproject.org/

P. D. Magnus, Tim Button with additions by J. Robert Loftis remixed and revised by Aaron Thomas-Bolduc, Richard Zach, forallx Calgary Remix: An Introduction to Formal Logic, Winter 2018. http://forallx.openlogicproject.org/

Frank Hubeny
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Hint: the following statements are all equivalent:

  • $p\to q$
  • $\neg p\lor q$
  • $\neg\neg q\lor\neg p$
  • $\neg q\to\neg p$
J.G.
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    The formal proof that comes naturally to me uses none of this. How is this helpful? – Git Gud Dec 29 '18 at 14:20
  • @GitGud If you have a different route, well done. But to any future reader considering this problem who doesn't, the use comes in providing a sequence of statements worth proving equivalent. How you stitch them together into a proof depends on your preferred notation. – J.G. Dec 29 '18 at 15:59
  • I didn't say what I should have said. How do you go from this to a formal proof? As I see it, you need to go to the moon and back, I don't see how this can be helpful. – Git Gud Dec 29 '18 at 16:09